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Old Yesterday, 12:11 AM
 
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So I am Caribbean born of African descent living in the United States. I am no way a historian and I only study to get a passing grade. The subject that I am studying in is U.S History. Amerigo Vespucci whom America is named after has a published letter called 'Mundus Novus' in which he details his Voyage to the New World. In it, he is quoted as saying "Thence by sea we skirted the whole African coast and part of Ethiopia as far as the Ethiopic Promontory, so-called by Ptolemy, which we now call Cape Verde and the Ethiopians Beseghice. Can someone explain to me what that means? I thought before the 15th Century, Cape Verde was uninhabited. By the accounts of Vespucci, it seems that the Ethiopians were well aware of Cape Verde Islands. The sentence that follows that says, "And that region, Mandingha, lies within the torrid zone fourteen degrees north of the equator; it is inhabited by tribes and nations of blacks." Something isn't adding up. Is there something that I am missing in understanding what he meant by those lines? Thanks.
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Old Yesterday, 06:54 AM
 
Location: New Jersey
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That last sentence you bolded was talking about "Mandingha" not Cape Verde. Mandingha was probably the African coast. Your misunderstanding comes from you not reading it correctly.
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Old Yesterday, 09:08 AM
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Most likely Mandinga was on the African coast in the Senegambia region. The Mandinga effect is visible in the DNA of Hispanics, the first place that was explored for slaves in Spanish America during the 1500s.

In the 1700s was the other African impulse directed mainly by the French and English, and it took place further south on the African coast. This too is visible in the DNA of many people in the Americas, with the Senegambia genetic legacy dropping considerably in former French and English colonies of the Americas and replaced with Africans of the Gulf of Benin.

What this lead is three things:

1) The African genetic legacy among Spanish Americans is much older than in Francophone and Anglo Americas.

2) Spanish Americans, especially around the Caribbean Sea, can be detected two pulses of African genetic legacy while in the former French and English colonies only one pulse is detected (mostly in the 1700s).

3) Spanish Americans have more European ancestry mixed in than from former French or English colonies.
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Old Yesterday, 09:51 AM
 
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Originally Posted by antinimby View Post
That last sentence you bolded was talking about "Mandingha" not Cape Verde. Mandingha was probably the African coast. Your misunderstanding comes from you not reading it correctly.
Okay so, explain the first bolded sentence then.
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Old Yesterday, 10:38 AM
 
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Another question I have is if Cape Verde was uninhabited, why did Ptolemy who was born in 100 AD, 1,400 years before the 15th century, called Cape Verde "Ethiopic promontory"?

After doing some google research, the original translation of 'Ethiopic' was Ethiope, which in Greek(Aethiopia) Means dark-skinned people. Why would Ptolemy name a chain of Islands dark-skinned people promontory?
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Old Yesterday, 11:40 AM
 
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Originally Posted by antinimby View Post
That last sentence you bolded was talking about "Mandingha" not Cape Verde. Mandingha was probably the African coast. Your misunderstanding comes from you not reading it correctly.

This is how I Understand Amerigo Vespucci's account of the Cape Verde Islands. Ptlomey, who lived 1400 years prior, called the Islands " Aethiopie promontory". Aethiopie, is a Greek word for dark-skinned people. Europeans then called it Cape Verde and the Ethiopians who lived there Beseghice. In other words, ETHIOPIANS LIVED THERE and were called some strange name which seems to be erased from all history, just like the inhabitants.

What is Beseghice? Why is it Amerigo's Letter is the only account of such a name?

As I study History more, the more questions I have and the more intrigued I am getting. This is no longer just about getting a grade, that's for sure.

I have a theory, which is off-topic, but in my opinion, not all blacks come from the same gene pool( kinda like how Japanese and Vietnamese are different). I also theorize, that Ptolemy's account of Ethiopia does not just limit it to the country Ethiopia but they migrated out west and eventually to the Cape Verde Islands.
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Old Yesterday, 12:55 PM
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Sub-Saharan Africa has also been called Ethiopic. In fact, its common to see old writers (and recent ones too) refer to the blacks of Africa as the 'ethiopic race'. It has nothing to do with modern Ethiopia.

Cape Verde was referred as belonging to the 'Aetheopic promontory' because it has always been a chain of islands closer to Sub-Saharan Africa than any other place. I think it isn't that hard to figure it out. It says nothing of the skin color of the people, just the geographic location of the islands. Like the Canary Islands belong to the African continent, the Caribbean islands to the American continent, the East Indies to the Asian continent, the same is true of Cape Verde.
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Old Yesterday, 02:40 PM
 
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Originally Posted by AntonioR View Post
Sub-Saharan Africa has also been called Ethiopic. In fact, its common to see old writers (and recent ones too) refer to the blacks of Africa as the 'ethiopic race'. It has nothing to do with modern Ethiopia.

Cape Verde was referred as belonging to the 'Aetheopic promontory' because it has always been a chain of islands closer to Sub-Saharan Africa than any other place. I think it isn't that hard to figure it out. It says nothing of the skin color of the people, just the geographic location of the islands. Like the Canary Islands belong to the African continent, the Caribbean islands to the American continent, the East Indies to the Asian continent, the same is true of Cape Verde.

Okay so if Sub-Saharan Africa was called Ethiopic, then why make different distinctions about the area? For example, let us read Amerigo Vespucci's excerpt again. "Thence by sea we skirted the whole African coast and part of Ethiopia as far as the Ethiopic Promontory." Both Africa and Ethiopia are classified as separate. Okay, granted he may separate the continent and the "region" within the continent, but why give another distinction of the region? As stated by his following excerpt: And that region, Mandingha, lies within the torrid zone fourteen degrees north of the equator; it is inhabited by tribes and nations of blacks. What makes Ethiopia and the Mandingha region not the same, if, in fact, both are Sub-Saharian according to you?

I personally do not think they are the same!

Also, why does History teach that Portuguese Sailors discovered Cape Verde Islands, when in fact they only changed the name of it because it was discovered hundreds of years ago by Ptolemy?
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Old Yesterday, 03:51 PM
Status: "Thinking of the future..." (set 7 days ago)
 
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You mean why he made it a difference between black Africa from “white” Africa?

I think the Cape Verde Islands has been called that for a very long time. Nowhere else in Africa shares that name either.
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Old Today, 09:53 AM
 
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Originally Posted by AntonioR View Post
You mean why he made it a difference between black Africa from “white” Africa?

I think the Cape Verde Islands has been called that for a very long time. Nowhere else in Africa shares that name either.
No. I meant if Mandingha and Ethiopia both mean sub- Sahara Africa. Why didn't he just call the Mandingha region in his letter Ethiopia? Why separate the two?

Also, why would he call Ethiopians Beseghice? Wouldn't that also make the Mandingha people to be called Beseghice as well? But clearly, he just referred them as tribes and a nation of blacks?

I stand by my assertion that something doesn't add up? What is Beseghice? Why did he call the Ethiopians Beseghice? Why didn't he refer the Mandingha as Beseghice if in fact that 'Ethiopia at that time was referred to as Sub- Saharan?

Last edited by Jrellis; Today at 10:28 AM.. Reason: spelling
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