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As you can see, about two thirds of the self-identified Brazilian whites have mitochondrial DNA from a non-European haplogroup.
The same doesn't happen with the self-identified whites from Philadelphia, USA. Only a small minority of self-identified whites from Philadelphia have mitochondrial DNA from a non-European haplogroup.
It's also interesting that for paternal Y chromosome stats, the same holds for the other direction where self-identified blacks have a large percentage of european ancestry. Basically, the picture this paints is that Brazilians are quite mixed in their ancestry regardless of what one identifies as.
It's also interesting that for paternal Y chromosome stats, the same holds for the other direction where self-identified blacks have a large percentage of european ancestry. Basically, the picture this paints is that Brazilians are quite mixed in their ancestry regardless of what one identifies as.
The paternal Y chromosome stats shows that the most common mixing in the Colonial Era was: European man + African or Amerindian woman.
Location: The western periphery of Terra Australis
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Why is Latin America so racially mixed?
I think it's a good thing that Brazil is so diverse with many racially-mixed people. I know there is still prejudice based on skin colour there, but I'm wondering, assuming the Spaniards and Portuguese were as racist as the early American colonists, why did America pursue a policy of segregation, while in Latin America intermarriage between natives, Europeans and later black slaves was common and even promoted? Was it to 'breed out' the Indians, as what the government tried to do in Australia with our Aborigines? The settlers in the US, in contrast, just wanted to herd off the Indians to small reservations or outright kill them. Is 'racial purity' more of an Anglo-Saxon rather than a Hispanic thing?
Why was racial segregation in the US South so extreme during the Jim Crow era? Like blacks not allowed to marry whites, many black men hanged for being with white women. Other nations with a colonial past, presumably also pretty racist, never took things that far.
Sociologists and anthropologists talk about two kinds of colonies:
- Colony of settlement
- Colony of exploitation
In a "colony of settlement", entire families (including women), come from the colonizer country.
In a "colony of exploitation", it's less usual the arrival of families, and it's much more usual the arrival of "adventurers" who are usually single man. The number of women that come from the colonizer country is much smaller than in a colony of settlement. And that large number of single men tend to take native women as spouses.
Almost all countries in Latin America were colonies of exploitation, unlike the USA and Canada, that were mostly colonies of settlement.
Location: The western periphery of Terra Australis
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MalaMan
The kind of colonization.
Sociologists and anthropologists talk about two kinds of colonies:
- Colony of settlement
- Colony of exploitation
In a "colony of settlement", entire families (including women), come from the colonizer country.
In a "colony of exploitation", it's less usual the arrival of families, and it's much more usual the arrival of "adventurers" who are usually single man. The number of women that come from the colonizer country is much smaller than in a colony of settlement. And that large number of single men tend to take native women as spouses.
Almost all countries in Latin America were colonies of exploitation, unlike the USA and Canada, that were mostly colonies of settlement.
Good explanation. The English colonists were settlers, while the early colonists in Central and South Americas were adventurers, the conquistadors in search or wealth. Did the Spanish ever intend to actually turn Mexico into a Spanish realm? Or just exploit their riches? Either way Latin America was settled by large numbers of Europeans as the US, Canada and Australia, the difference being they mixed with the native population and took over much of their culture, instead of just wiping it all away. That's why I see Latin Americans as semi-indigenous - some being totally indigenous - in terms of their culture, whereas European American culture for the large part merely replaced the indigenous American culture.
Because:
1) There were already a lot of people there from Race A
2) A lot of colonials came there from Race B
3) They brought a lot of slaves from Race C.
Then they mixed.
Location: The western periphery of Terra Australis
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jtur88
Because:
1) There were already a lot of people there from Race A
2) A lot of colonials came there from Race B
3) They brought a lot of slaves from Race C.
Then they mixed.
Blacks and whites were present in both large numbers in the South in the US. Yet they never intermixed to the degree that occurred in Latin America. Interracial dating is still a 'big deal' for some folk in America even today.
Blacks and whites were present in both large numbers in the South in the US. Yet they never intermixed to the degree that occurred in Latin America. Interracial dating is still a 'big deal' for some folk in America even today.
it can be even in latin america. my parents would be pretty pissed off at me if i married an indigenous girl, although it has more to do with them being worried about marrying someone of a different class than race. not sure if they would care if she was american, but definitely wouldn't be tolerated back home in mexico.
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