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Old 08-27-2013, 12:18 PM
 
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Is it just a mere coincidence, or it has something to do with the legacy from how differently the British empire ruled from the Spanish empire?
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Old 08-27-2013, 01:01 PM
 
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The British Empire didn't rule that long in America. America's great success came after they were no longer in the picture.
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Old 08-27-2013, 01:39 PM
 
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Originally Posted by Shooting Stars View Post
The British Empire didn't rule that long in America. America's great success came after they were no longer in the picture.
Perhaps that is the reason!
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Old 08-27-2013, 02:19 PM
 
Location: Canada
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Originally Posted by Shooting Stars View Post
The British Empire didn't rule that long in America. America's great success came after they were no longer in the picture.
This is about Spanish America vs. British America, so it's worth considering that the British Empire never left any part of it except the United States. Newfoundland, Canada, the Bahamas, Jamaica, Belize, Guyana, and the rest of the British Carribean were all the British Empire until its post-war collapse, and I think this is quite key in noting how the different colonies faired. The British colonies in the south largely haven't faired much better than their Spanish neighbours, while those in the north have prospered just as much as the United States. It's because those in the north were home to European settlers with the critical mass of educated specialists and wealthy elites with capital to invest to get an early start on industrialization. And for the record, during this period most of the Spanish colonies had been freed by Bolivar already. The US didn't become wealthy until after the civil war, many decades after the Bolivarian revolution. The other factor, looking at why Argentina got wealthy as well, may be that moderate climate countries were easier to farm industrially when farming started to move away from the subsistence model in the early twentieth century.
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Old 08-27-2013, 02:43 PM
bg7
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Shooting Stars View Post
The British Empire didn't rule that long in America. America's great success came after they were no longer in the picture.
FYI, Canada is part of "English America". That was part of British rule until quite late in the day.

EDIT - ok next time I'll read what everyone else wrote before posting myself...
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Old 08-27-2013, 02:49 PM
bg7
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BIMBAM View Post
This is about Spanish America vs. British America, so it's worth considering that the British Empire never left any part of it except the United States. Newfoundland, Canada, the Bahamas, Jamaica, Belize, Guyana, and the rest of the British Carribean were all the British Empire until its post-war collapse, and I think this is quite key in noting how the different colonies faired. The British colonies in the south largely haven't faired much better than their Spanish neighbours, while those in the north have prospered just as much as the United States. It's because those in the north were home to European settlers with the critical mass of educated specialists and wealthy elites with capital to invest to get an early start on industrialization. And for the record, during this period most of the Spanish colonies had been freed by Bolivar already. The US didn't become wealthy until after the civil war, many decades after the Bolivarian revolution. The other factor, looking at why Argentina got wealthy as well, may be that moderate climate countries were easier to farm industrially when farming started to move away from the subsistence model in the early twentieth century.
However, there are differences between how British Carribean fared vs. Spanish Carribean.


In the end, the main (but not the only) key is corruption. The ability to reduce it, including the institutional separations, has a huge impact. While the US is quite corrupt for a Western country, it is noticeably less corrupt than most South American countries. Graft holds back the development of a country significantly. The same rule applies to other former colonies where rule of law was generally followed - Singapore, HK, Australia. India moreso than Pakistan.
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Old 08-27-2013, 05:03 PM
 
Location: The North
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Climate set the stage. Countries with growing areas which experience frost during winter tend to be the most productive at feeding it's population due to the types of crops which survive the cycle, namely wheat. Of countries in the tropics Singapore is really the only industrialized nation with a few others in the oil belt close to the same level. In the parts with harsh winters the lone countries without high levels of success were all greatly held back by Communism or so it would appear.

Different factors exist now, but the stage was set in the past by climate. Then once you got to the industrial age factors such as support /belief in education and in more robust rule of law and property rights made those countries legally based on common English law thrive with some exceptions.
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Old 08-27-2013, 07:19 PM
 
Location: Fort Collins, USA
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Originally Posted by Willy702 View Post
Climate set the stage. Countries with growing areas which experience frost during winter tend to be the most productive at feeding it's population due to the types of crops which survive the cycle, namely wheat. Of countries in the tropics Singapore is really the only industrialized nation with a few others in the oil belt close to the same level. In the parts with harsh winters the lone countries without high levels of success were all greatly held back by Communism or so it would appear.

Different factors exist now, but the stage was set in the past by climate. Then once you got to the industrial age factors such as support /belief in education and in more robust rule of law and property rights made those countries legally based on common English law thrive with some exceptions.
I can think of numerous problems with this theory. 1. I haven't found any sites that say that wheat requires frost. 2. Wheat is just one of the fundamental grains of the human diet. In Asia, widespread rice cultivation supports population numbers that are far larger than the U.S. and Canada. 3. Australia is mostly tropical and subtropical and has the same standard of living as other ex-British colonies. 4. There are plenty of areas in South America that get frost and there is no consistent correlation between higher incomes and those specific areas. 5. You didn't mention heat "sapping people's energy" but large portions of Mexico, Central America, and South America are tropical highlands with perpetual spring and yet you can't correlate those areas with higher incomes either. 6. Throughout history, the most and least developed areas of the world have fluctuated in a manner that is completely independent of a specific climatic regime.
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Old 08-27-2013, 07:22 PM
 
Location: southern california
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this question has been pondered a great deal about the massive difference between economies of mexico and the united states only a thin line separating them but a gulf of economic difference.
my mexican friends have told me that massive corruption is the culprit but i am not sure, we have that here.
i dont think we can be any longer set up as an economic model for latin america bek we keep exporting all our industry and jobs. we are living on credit.
not a good model of economic prosperity more like a model of how rome burns while nero fiddles.
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Old 08-27-2013, 07:42 PM
 
Location: San Diego, California Republic
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Some good info and responses here. I'll like to add another possibility; in one thread here, someone mentioned the two types of colonies, those for settlement and those for adventure. Maybe im wrong but it seems like the settlement colonies tended to fair better. Perhaps because of more families and working people who could build an economy from the ground up?
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