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Old 10-06-2011, 10:56 AM
 
5 posts, read 2,570 times
Reputation: 10

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Im writing this in the hope that someone out there can help me with this. In April 2010 I purchased a nice house in Sylvan hills, but immediately afterwards I had a financial crisis and I was not able to pay for the house to get renovated, so I waited a full year until I had the money.

About 2 months ago I got the water turned on, and found that on my first bill I had been Billed for each and every month since I bought the house!!

I used no water during that period and I had no account during that period. The water department says they can legally bill me for this.

I just don't understand how I can be charged for something I never had
or never used. It is just not American!!!

does anyone know if this is really legal? I appealed the bill but all they did was check for leaks which had nothing to do with my appeal.
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Old 10-06-2011, 11:34 AM
 
397 posts, read 423,233 times
Reputation: 207
It's called shared sacrifice. Pay up. We need all of the water revenue we can get.

Seriously, I have no idea if this you legitimately owe the money or not. For zero usage and zero service, I don't see what you would actually be paying for.
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Old 10-06-2011, 11:34 AM
 
1,636 posts, read 1,637,370 times
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the person who had the home before you probably had the water in their name and now they are billing you for it???

oh by the way welcome to the City of Atlanta water company...complete ripoffs!
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Old 10-06-2011, 11:41 AM
 
5 posts, read 2,570 times
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The water was turned off, I went there and checked it myself there was no usage. The previous owner had it turned off when they left.
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Old 10-06-2011, 11:47 AM
JPD
 
7,995 posts, read 8,274,696 times
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Maybe these are so-called pass through (meter reader) charges?
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Old 10-06-2011, 11:53 AM
 
1,636 posts, read 1,637,370 times
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I wondering if you can legally have no water in a home for a whole year even if you are using it
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Old 10-06-2011, 12:04 PM
 
5 posts, read 2,570 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by DONNIEANDDONNA417 View Post
I wondering if you can legally have no water in a home for a whole year even if you are using it
There was nobody living there.
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Old 10-06-2011, 12:23 PM
 
1,636 posts, read 1,637,370 times
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well if they ask you when you purchased the home and you told them a year ago. They are probably billing you for the average usage per month. Either way its not right so I would definitely appeal it
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Old 10-06-2011, 02:47 PM
 
Location: Atlanta
736 posts, read 631,059 times
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If there was no water usage, how much are they billing you? $0?
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Old 10-06-2011, 06:32 PM
 
5 posts, read 2,570 times
Reputation: 10
Quote:
Originally Posted by researchnerd View Post
if there was no water usage, how much are they billing you? $0?
$500.00
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