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Old 03-15-2013, 04:06 PM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by SAAN View Post
There was no transference at that time, they still kept the Sabbath after Christ died. The change of the day of rest was done by the catholic church in the early 300AD's.
Although Constantine made the day of rest Sunday for all except the farmers, after Pentecost the Christians No longer kept the old Mosaic law Sabbath. That Sabbath keeping came to end with Christ being the end of the law.- Romans 10 v 4
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Old 03-15-2013, 04:13 PM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rstrats View Post
A poster on another forum, the topic of which was questioning the authenticity of the last 12 verses in the book of Mark, wrote that it doesnít really matter because there is no doctrinal teaching in Mark 16:9-20 that cannot be proved elsewhere in agreed Scripture.
I made the mistake of sticking my nose into the discussion by pointing out that actually there is a statement in verse 9, as the KJV and similar versions have it, that is used for a doctrinal teaching that is to be found nowhere else in Scripture. As the KJV translates it, it is the only place that puts the resurrection on the first day of the week. I then suggested that whenever the discussion of seventh day observance versus first day observance comes up, first day proponents usually use the idea of a first day resurrection to justify the change, and when questioned about the day of resurrection, quote Mark 16:9. The poster came back with: "Quote a published author who has done that." - I have not yet been able to come up with one. Does anyone here know of one?
Mark chapter 16 originally ended at verse 8.

The style of writing changes after verse 8.

There are no corresponding or parallel reference verses after verse 8 as there is with the rest of Mark.

Jerome and Eusebius both believed Mark 16 ended at verse 8.

Both the Sinaitic and Vatican 1209 omit the verses after verse 8 because of not being part of the original manuscripts.
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Old 03-15-2013, 05:56 PM
 
4,054 posts, read 3,711,765 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Matthew 4:4 View Post
Although Constantine made the day of rest Sunday for all except the farmers, after Pentecost the Christians No longer kept the old Mosaic law Sabbath. That Sabbath keeping came to end with Christ being the end of the law.- Romans 10 v 4
Are you sure about that, most research ive done, shows everyone still kept the sabbath unitl the Roman Empire time. Rome was the only nation that did sunday worship and after that with the influence of the Roman Empire, is where the Sunday worship really comes from.

Romans 10:3-4


3 For they being ignorant of Godís righteousness, and seeking to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted to the righteousness of God. 4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes.



Romans 10:4 is just stating you cant get your righteousness from the law, but by faith in Jesus
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Old 03-16-2013, 07:08 AM
 
Location: US
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rstrats View Post
Finn_Jarber,

re: "Doesn't Matt 28:1 confirm it?"

Matthew 28:1 doesnít say when the resurrection took place - only that the women came to the tomb on the 1st of the week.
Yo mean this one?

Mat 28:1 But late in the sabbaths, at the dawning into the first of the sabbaths, Mary the Magdalene and the other Mary came to gaze upon the grave.

Where does it state first day of the week there?...
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Old 03-16-2013, 07:09 AM
 
Location: US
26,298 posts, read 13,949,854 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rstrats View Post
A poster on another forum, the topic of which was questioning the authenticity of the last 12 verses in the book of Mark, wrote that it doesn’t really matter because there is no doctrinal teaching in Mark 16:9-20 that cannot be proved elsewhere in agreed Scripture.
 
I made the mistake of sticking my nose into the discussion by pointing out that actually there is a statement in verse 9, as the KJV and similar versions have it, that is used for a doctrinal teaching that is to be found nowhere else in Scripture. As the KJV translates it, it is the only place that puts the resurrection on the first day of the week. I then suggested that whenever the discussion of seventh day observance versus first day observance comes up, first day proponents usually use the idea of a first day resurrection to justify the change, and when questioned about the day of resurrection, quote Mark 16:9. The poster came back with: "Quote a published author who has done that." - I have not yet been able to come up with one. Does anyone here know of one?

Mar 16:9 And having risen early on the first of the sabbath, He first appeared to Mary Magdalene, from whom He had cast out seven demons.

Sabbath is a Saturday...

G4521
σάββατον
sabbaton
sab'-bat-on
Of Hebrew origin [H7676]; the Sabbath (that is, Shabbath), or day of weekly repose from secular avocations (also the observance or institution itself); by extension a se'nnight, that is, the interval between two Sabbaths; likewise the plural in all the above applications: - sabbath (day), week.

H7676
שׁבּת
shabbâth
shab-bawth'
Intensive from H7673; intermission, that is, (specifically) the Sabbath: - (+ every) sabbath.

Compare:

G4315
προσάββατον
prosabbaton
pros-ab'-bat-on
From G4253 and G4521; a fore sabbath, that is, the sabbath eve: - day before the sabbath. Compare G3904.

G1207
δευτερόπρωτος
deuteroprōtos
dyoo-ter-op'-ro-tos
From G1208 and G4413; second first, that is, (specifically) a designation of the Sabbath immediately after the Paschal week (being the second after Passover day, and the first of the seven Sabbaths intervening before Pentecost): - second . . . after the first.

Last edited by Richard1965; 03-16-2013 at 07:18 AM..
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Old 03-16-2013, 07:59 AM
 
Location: US
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Matthew 4:4 View Post
Although Constantine made the day of rest Sunday for all except the farmers, after Pentecost the Christians No longer kept the old Mosaic law Sabbath. That Sabbath keeping came to end with Christ being the end of the law.- Romans 10 v 4
Rom 10:4 For Christ is the end of Law for righteousness to everyone that believes.

G5056
τέλος
telos
tel'-os
From a primary word τέλλω tellō (to set out for a definite point or goal); properly the point aimed at as a limit, that is, (by implication) the conclusion of an act or state (termination [literally, figuratively or indefinitely], result [immediate, ultimate or prophetic], purpose); specifically an impost or levy (as paid): - + continual, custom, end (-ing), finally, uttermost. Compare G5411.

The Goal of the Law for everyone believing is the Righteousness that is in the Anointed One...If we are to imitate Yeshua, and Yeshua is Righteous according to the Law because He observed the Law in totality, which is the reason HaShem bestowed the honor of only begotton Son on Him, then imitating Yeshua would entail doing the same thing that He did...Would it not?...
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Old 03-16-2013, 08:25 AM
 
Location: US
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Quote:
Originally Posted by SAAN View Post
Are you sure about that, most research ive done, shows everyone still kept the sabbath unitl the Roman Empire time. Rome was the only nation that did sunday worship and after that with the influence of the Roman Empire, is where the Sunday worship really comes from.

Romans 10:3-4


3 For they being ignorant of Godís righteousness, and seeking to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted to the righteousness of God. 4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes.



Romans 10:4 is just stating you cant get your righteousness from the law, but by faith in Jesus
I don't think that is what it is stating for the word 'telos' has the sense of end as in a goal set out for, I do not really think that it is stating that the Law is no longer to be observed, for even Yeshua stated that the law would not end until Heaven and earth passed away, so referencing that, Romans 10:4 must be speaking of something else...Also, we are told to imitate Yeshua...How do we do that?...By doing what He did...He accomplished what the Lost sheep of the house of Israel couldn't due to the corruption within the Leadership of Israel and He set the example that garnered Him praise and glorification and justification from the Father and, I believe, on the day of the baptism of Yeshua, in the River Jordan, when the Spirit of HaShem descended on Yeshua, that this was the day that HaShem was quoted as saying, "This is my Son in whom I am well pleased, this day I have begotten Him"...How did Yeshua pease HaShem?...By observing the Laws of HaShem...Otherwise He would have been like any of the other Messiahs of the Old Testament that failed to fully observe the Laws of HaShem...Moses, david, etc....It boggles my mind why no one ask the question of why were these men of the Old Testament called Messiah, I had always been taught that that was an exclusive Title for Yeshua, obviously not...And that HaShem had stated that His Laws would no longer be in stone but be written on the hearts of those believing...So, what is the difference between observing "thou shalt not commit adultry" written on stone or paper and believing in your heart that you should never commit adultry because it is wrong, and obviously HaShem has kept His promise of writing it on your heart because now it is something that is desirous within you to observe...Either way, you ARE observing the Commandement of not commiting adultry...However, it is not due to your own efforts but due to the fact that HaShem has written it on your heart so, as a believer, you are observing it because it is your new nature...In other words, you observe not only outwardly but you observe it inwardly...You are not observing it begrudgingly...As Yeshua stated, "You are white washed tombs filled with dead menis bones", which means those that He stated this to were looking good on the outside, but on the inside they desired to commit adultry...As if HaShem could ONLY see the outside of them and not the INSIDE of them also...They were following the Law not out of desire but out of obligation and not really delighting in the Laws of HaShem...
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Old 03-16-2013, 08:50 AM
 
367 posts, read 281,026 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Richard1965 View Post
Yo mean this one?

Mat 28:1 But late in the sabbaths, at the dawning into the first of the sabbaths, Mary the Magdalene and the other Mary came to gaze upon the grave.

Where does it state first day of the week there?...
If you allow for the use of the word and all it's possible meanings you get in English "First day of the week" or more literally "first of the period between 2 Sabbaths".

This is the proper translation of Mark 16:9, John 20:19, Matt 28:1, Mark 16:2, Luke 24:1, John 20:1, Acts 20:7, 1Cor 16:2.
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Old 03-16-2013, 10:31 AM
 
Location: US
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Quote:
Originally Posted by DennisWayne View Post
If you allow for the use of the word and all it's possible meanings you get in English "First day of the week" or more literally "first of the period between 2 Sabbaths".

This is the proper translation of Mark 16:9, John 20:19, Matt 28:1, Mark 16:2, Luke 24:1, John 20:1, Acts 20:7, 1Cor 16:2.
Greek has a word for week...
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Old 03-16-2013, 10:46 AM
 
Location: Whereever we have our RV parked
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You have to read!!! Mark 16:-12 make it very clear that it was Sunday.

Mk 16:1 When the Sabbath was over, Mary Magdalene, Mary the mother of James, and Salome bought spices so that they might go to anoint Jesusí body.
Mk 16:2 Very early on the first day of the week, just after sunrise, they were on their way to the tomb
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