Is there biblical evidence for baptism of the dead? (Latter-Day Saints, Mormons, doctrine)

[Katzpur]

Originally Posted by I LOVE NORTH CAROLINA

No where does it say in the Bible you must be baptized to be saved. Baptism is symbol of Christ death, burial and resurrection.

Originally Posted by WonderingWanderer

Then why was Jesus baptized?

Many Christians deny the need for baptism. I think this is primarily due to their inability to reconcile these two statements which may appear to contradict each other:

(1) God is loving and just.
(2) God will condemn a believer to eternal torment for failing to be baptized.

[I LOVE NORTH CAROLINA]

Originally Posted by WonderingWanderer

Then why was Jesus baptized?

Jesus was not baptized for repentance of sin, but because He saw His baptism as advancing God's work, He accepted baptism in obedient service to the Father, and the Father showed His approval.

[yeshuasavedme]

Originally Posted by WonderingWanderer

Then why was Jesus baptized?

He was baptized into the Priesthood of Righteousness, as the Firstborn Son of God, and the High Priest of earth in the order of "King of Righteousness" that Adam was created to reign over the dominion in, and lost at the fall. From Adam to Moses the office was passed through the line of the "Righteous" who all died, as no person born in Adam can live forever in that office -nor could they enter into the heavenly realm of earth, which Adam, the first son of God of the human being kind, was cast out of at the fall/death, in spirit of him, which brought mortality on all Adam's seed.

Moses transferred the office of high priest to Aaron, baptizing him into it and anointing him into it at God's command and will, but did not pass the office of high king to him [Up to Moses, both offices were held by the same person], but that office was later put on David and his seed.
The Christ come in flesh as second Man and Firstborn of earth was baptized into that office by a descendant of Aaron, John the Baptist, and who was probably the legal and lawful heir of the office of high priest in Aaron's order -which had been politically corrupted at the return from Babylon, in the Maccabees' times].
So Jesus' baptism was "fulfilling all righteousness", and coming up out of the waters of baptism, He was anointed with the Holy Spirit resting on Him.
He is now the everliving/everlasting Father, the Firstborn, and the High Priest of earth, who is seated in the heavenly realm on the throne of Glory, which Adam the first son, never ascended to sit upon the throne of, because he failed the test of obedience and lost access to Mount Eden and the Garden of Righteousness.

He ever lives to make intercession for His own adopted sons, and if one is born of His One Living Spirit/Christ, then one is His son by that adoption of second birth; and As He is the High Priest and Everlasting Father, and soon coming King, who is the God of the whole earth as Second Son and only Firstborn, then it behooves anyone who has repented and received the Gospel to obey Him, or else how can they claim that they know Him or love Him -as He Himself said?

Born again in Christ believers identify with Christ in water baptism, and have the hope of the Church to look forward to, in the resurrection in regeneration of their bodily elements, for the Glory and priesthood that Adam had, and lost, and which Christ came to restore the kingdom of God back, for.

[twin.spin]

Originally Posted by Katzpur

Many Christians deny the need for baptism. I think this is primarily due to their inability to reconcile these two statements which may appear to contradict each other:

(1) God is loving and just.
(2) God will condemn a believer to eternal torment for failing to be baptized.

God does not condemn a believer.....God condemns the unbeliever to what LDS calls "outer darkness" (hell)

Mark 16:16
Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned.

[HotinAZ]

Well it seems to me that there is some cross translation going on here in this verse, if this is the ONLY one that is evidenced for baptism of the dead.

1 Corinthians 15:29

Or else what will they do who are immersed for the dead? If the dead aren't raised at all, why then are they immersed for the dead?

I used the Hebrew version because it seemed to make the most sense when looking at the Greek words.

Who's Name are we baptized in? We are baptized as a symbol of dying to the things of this world'kosmos' and raised into Him, Jesus Christ who was raised from the dead.

The question Paul is asking is if we look for the resurrection, and there isn't any,,then why be baptized at all?

Make sense?

[yeshuasavedme]

Originally Posted by HotinAZ

Well it seems to me that there is some cross translation going on here in this verse, if this is the ONLY one that is evidenced for baptism of the dead.

1 Corinthians 15:29

Or else what will they do who are immersed for the dead? If the dead aren't raised at all, why then are they immersed for the dead?

I used the Hebrew version because it seemed to make the most sense when looking at the Greek words.

Who's Name are we baptized in? We are baptized as a symbol of dying to the things of this world'kosmos' and raised into Him, Jesus Christ who was raised from the dead.

The question Paul is asking is if we look for the resurrection, and there isn't any,,then why be baptized at all?

Make sense?

Yep.
Because it is the body of death [Adam flesh] which is subjected to water baptism in obedience to Christ, in the hope of its resurrection, regenerated into His New Man image -same body, melted elements metamorphosed to the immortal man image.

[Katzpur]

Originally Posted by twin.spin

God does not condemn a believer.....God condemns the unbeliever to what LDS calls "outer darkness" (hell)

Mark 16:16
Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned.

Sorry, you lost me. Are you stating your church's doctrine or trying to explain LDS doctrine?

[Katzpur]

Originally Posted by HotinAZ

Well it seems to me that there is some cross translation going on here in this verse, if this is the ONLY one that is evidenced for baptism of the dead.

1 Corinthians 15:29

Or else what will they do who are immersed for the dead? If the dead aren't raised at all, why then are they immersed for the dead?

I used the Hebrew version because it seemed to make the most sense when looking at the Greek words.

Who's Name are we baptized in? We are baptized as a symbol of dying to the things of this world'kosmos' and raised into Him, Jesus Christ who was raised from the dead.

The question Paul is asking is if we look for the resurrection, and there isn't any,,then why be baptized at all?

Make sense?

No, especially not when seen in conjunction with your OP, where you appear to be condemning the practice.

[michelleleigh]

The soul does not die, it is still existing so one can choose to except the baptism that is done for them or they can choose to reject it. It also gives someone a chance that they might not have recived in there earthly life or something they felt that they did not deserve. I also think it might bring a comfort to those who are left behind

[twin.spin]

Originally Posted by Katzpur

Sorry, you lost me. Are you stating your church's doctrine or trying to explain LDS doctrine?

I'm stating what the Bible teaches in terms that is understandable to Christians and non-Christians and to any LDS who may not percieve what I'm trying to express in terms of when Jesus says "condemned".


By phrasing it this way (should) leave no possibility of talking past one another. When I repeat Jesus saying " you (a person) will be condemned.. or you (a pesron) will indeed die in your sins", You should take it as he is speaking in terms of the worst possible situation in the LDS theology .. being included with the apostates and the devil in outer darkness nothing else.