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Old 04-27-2011, 05:34 PM
 
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Default Did Abraham, Jacob, Moses, Gideon, Elkanah, David, and Solomon sin having more than one wife?

All these men had more than one wife? All pillars of the faith, can a Christian have more than one wife? Did it stop, at the cross or change somewhere in the new testament? What does God say about this now and about them then, given he provided provisions for how to do it in the OT, does God say in the NT, you can only have one wife?

I am not talking Mormon stuff, I have wondered given David got his 2nd and 3rd wife at the same time and God told them and gave them more than one wife how this worked and how it is now? I would like to know what the Bible says, about it?
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Old 04-27-2011, 05:51 PM
 
Location: Portlandia "burbs"
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I don't claim to be a Bible expert. But, as I interpreted it, having more than one wife was an accepted practice in the times of the Old Testament. Marital arrangements began to evolve with Christianity. It doesn't take a genius to read and understand that Jesus preached "equality" (which I realize is not the same "equality" of today's standards, but after all, this was 2000 years ago). He stressed a need for more mutual respect between the sexes, and He always referred to ONE wife.
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Old 04-27-2011, 06:22 PM
Status: "Attacks in self-defense only." (set 16 days ago)
 
Location: Salt Lake City
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Arena valleygirl View Post
All these men had more than one wife? All pillars of the faith, can a Christian have more than one wife? Did it stop, at the cross or change somewhere in the new testament? What does God say about this now and about them then, given he provided provisions for how to do it in the OT, does God say in the NT, you can only have one wife?
Yes, they did. They had more than one wife and it was an acceptable practice. God has occasionally approved of polygamy. There is nothing inherently "wrong" with it, as long as it is practiced with his approval -- as was the case with these examples. Based on what the scriptures say, though, it appears that monogamy should be the general rule.
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Old 04-27-2011, 07:05 PM
 
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People have said one wife, but I looked in the concordance and it says own wife, not one, except for bishops, elders and deacons, and isnt, Jesus married to each of his children, He husband, and then the church or bride, married to each one of us and a marrage supper tooo, I wonder about these things, God never condemned them and he never said "one" anywhere that I can find, others have told me that they can't find it either, i have my own cars works, not someone elses wife or not fornication?
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Old 04-27-2011, 07:58 PM
 
Location: Gaston, North Carolina
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Yes they sinned against God and payed a price for their sin. Abraham produced Ishmael therefor we have Muslims. Jacob was getting paid back for stealing Esaus blessing and he is the first Israelite but the 12 sons were never very well behaved. God punishes sin in His own way no matter how big or small we may think it is it is all or none. Commit the least and commit them all.
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Old 04-27-2011, 08:15 PM
Status: "Attacks in self-defense only." (set 16 days ago)
 
Location: Salt Lake City
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Originally Posted by RobinD69 View Post
Yes they sinned against God and payed a price for their sin. Abraham produced Ishmael therefor we have Muslims.
LOL! Oh my gosh! Does ignorance get any worse than this?
Are you seriously suggesting that Ishmael was in some twisted way the price Abraham paid for his "sin"? Abraham wasn't punished; he was blessed. Acts 3:25 says, "Ye are the children of the prophets, and of the covenant which God made with our fathers, saying unto Abraham, And in thy seed shall all the kindreds of the earth be blessed." How could God have conceivably blessed Him more than this?

If God had been opposed to the practice of polygamy, why would He have given David more than one wife? Why would He have given someone something that was causing him to sin? 2 Samuel 12:7-8 clearly states that it was God's choice that David have more than one wife.

"And Nathan said to David, Thou art the man. Thus saith the LORD God of Israel, I anointed thee king over Israel, and I delivered thee out of the hand of Saul; And I gave thee thy master's house, and thy master's wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given unto thee such and such things. It was not the fact that David had more than one wife that was sinful. It was that he coveted and committed murder. David already had more than one wife, wives God himself had given him.

There is absolutely no biblical evidence that God was displeased with the practice of polygamy per se. You can't provide one single solitary verse in which God condemned the practice, except when it was abused and practiced for the purpose of sexual fulfillment. Why would God have "allowed" it without at least saying it was wrong?

Last edited by Katzpur; 04-27-2011 at 08:24 PM..
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Old 04-27-2011, 08:18 PM
 
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It says David only sinned by taking Bathseba, these are the greats of the Bible and even Solomons son had many wives, took his sons and sent them to many cities to rule and it says that God said he did wisley,

Hukkelberry, you the OT does not count now, only after Christ, I have a question, all churches teach Malachi for Tithing, and the Psalms, and proverbs, and OT scripture quotes are all over churches of all denominations, in the Christian book stores you find books that teach all the OT books and how to apply it to NT times, the OT is quoted hundreds of times in the NT, how is it even though we do not keep the sacrifical system, that we do not keep anything BC as you said,

If you asked a pastor why we do not have sex with animals, he would tell you in Leviticus or somewhere it says we do not do that even though it is not talked about in the NT,

So if these great men were living in sin, how was it that God says he was not unhappy with them, and Abraham got in trouble with Hagar, but he had many wives after Sarah died at the same time it says, was he really living in sin? All these great men living in sin?

I would think one man, one woman would be the best most of the time, but is there any place in the NT that says no one can have more than one all the time, people say things are different in the NT, which they are, but do we not keep any of the OT rules? and given all churches teach the OT and how to keep it in the NT, I wonder about this with what David had, and Jacob for God was upset with Jacob for favouring Rachel over Leah, but He never condemned them for in the law their were rules for how to have more than one wife. I wonder just how God said this is now not allowed for all? or how we deal with rape, given the OT talks about it, but the NT does not? Just some thoughts
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Old 04-27-2011, 08:23 PM
 
Location: Gaston, North Carolina
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Katzpur View Post
LOL! Oh my gosh! Does ignorance get any worse than this?
Prove me wrong.
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Old 04-27-2011, 08:25 PM
Status: "Attacks in self-defense only." (set 16 days ago)
 
Location: Salt Lake City
13,892 posts, read 9,526,362 times
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Originally Posted by RobinD69 View Post
Prove me wrong.
I just did. I edited my post #6 to do just that. Ball's in your court, Robin. Good luck. You don't have a leg to stand on.
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Old 04-27-2011, 08:42 PM
 
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Katzpur you said scripture that God was not angry about it, but actually wanted it of course.

God was upset with Abraham taking Hagar for he was supposed to wait and have a son with Sarah, and David should not have taken Bathseba either, but Abraham had many wives after Sarah died at the same time and he was 137 years old then, what I would like to know is, what about now, what in the NT would keep anyone from having more than one wife, one is best even in the OT most of the time, but if God did it with David and many greats of the faith, could he not do it now? in the NT time like David?
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