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In Paragraph three the poster writes: "The Heavenly Father that Jesus points us to and whose will he always performed, bears no resemblance to the bigoted, unjust, tyrannical and murderous “god” of the OT."
I see this a lot here. People saying that God as seen in the OT can not possibly be the same deity we see in the NT.
OK fine, but how come Jesus cites the OT and speaks of His Heavenly Father as portrayed the OT a zillion times in the NT? Jesus seems to have no issue with God as He is presented in the OT. Why is that?
In Paragraph three the poster writes: "The Heavenly Father that Jesus points us to and whose will he always performed, bears no resemblance to the bigoted, unjust, tyrannical and murderous “god” of the OT."
I see this a lot here. People saying that God as seen in the OT can not possibly be the same deity we see in the NT.
OK fine, but how come Jesus cites the OT and speaks of His Heavenly Father as portrayed the OT a zillion times in the NT? Jesus seems to have no issue with God as He is presented in the OT. Why is that?
Opinions?
Sorry 5150 but we are not saying the God of the OT cannot possibly be the same deity we see in the NT.
They are the Same God.
However those in the OT could not see to the end of their salvation, they did not understand the Father, Jesus came to reveal the Father, why did He have to do this? Because of the ignorance of the OT writers concerning the Father.
It is not that they are different Gods 5150, it is the view of God that is different. Those who follow Christ view of the Father far surpasses the ignorant view of the men of old.
It is not that they are different Gods 5150, it is the view of God that is different. Those who follow Christ view of the Father far surpasses the ignorant view of the men of old.
So the OT folk who Jesus cited were ignorant? Their veiw was ignorant? Yet Jesus cited said views as valid and true. OK and fine.
Yet I see a problem with that POV. Please explain.
IMHO, you just need to study more. God reveals himself fundamentally no different in the Old Testament than the New. Salvation for the repentant believers, judgment and death for those who reject Him and His will and HIs ways. The NT is full of all kinds of warning of condemnation. If you review these, you will see what I mean.
Sorry 5150 but we are not saying the God of the OT cannot possibly be the same deity we see in the NT.
They are the Same God.
However those in the OT could not see to the end of their salvation, they did not understand the Father, Jesus came to reveal the Father, why did He have to do this? Because of the ignorance of the OT writers concerning the Father.
It is not that they are different Gods 5150, it is the view of God that is different. Those who follow Christ view of the Father far surpasses the ignorant view of the men of old.
AMEN!!! Why is this obvious reason for the differences ignored and the stupid retort "God does not change" used to justify trying to merge two such diametrically opposed views of the nature of God. Psychologists call it double think . . . when two contradictory views are held in the same mind and both are given credence.
So the OT folk who Jesus cited were ignorant? Their veiw was ignorant? Yet Jesus cited said views as valid and true. OK and fine.
Yet I see a problem with that POV. Please explain.
That they were ignorant superstitious primitives is NOT in question . . . they were, period. They also were in receipt of Divine inspiration that they had to use their ignorance to interpret. So truth is in there . . . but not their interpretations of it. Their prophecies of Jesus were true . . . but not all their ignorant superstitious beliefs about God's motives and actions. There are examples of BOTH righteousness and evil in there . . . that we are supposed to use for instructional purposes . . . to hone our ability to discern the difference.
Is it okay for a vengeful God to allow a time of grace and a church age? Jesus warned us about the same hell that God did.
Where in the OT does it speak of Hell?....
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