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Old 10-28-2007, 04:23 PM
 
3,031 posts, read 2,923,410 times
Reputation: 1208
Default Who is the LORD of Lords?

In order to understand who the Lord of lords is, some groundwork on God being one needs to be established as biblical truth.

Deuteronomy 6:4 says Hear, O Isreal: The Lord our God, the Lord is one!

In many Christian old testament bible passages, we see the word Lord in all capital letters. When we see that word in all capitals, it means that the word was translated from the Hebrew Tetragrammaton. The Tetragrammaton are consonants that represent the four letters YHWH identifying the name of God. The covenantal name of God in the Hebrew Bible is written with the four consonants: Yodh He Waw He. This name is known as the Tetragrammaton (Greek for "the four letters").

Although the Tetragrammaton was pronounced freely at the time the Torah and Prophets were written, its holiness in Judaism is such that it is no longer pronounced, except under very rare circumstances. Today, most scholars believe that name was pronounced Yahweh. But the name Jehovah is a corrupted form of that word that many commonly use in the English language today.

Lord in all capitals in the old testament means God-Jehovah who is the only true god spoken. The Jehovah’s witnesses’ New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures Bible translates the all capital LORD we see in the Christian bible Jehovah. So in their New World Translation, Deuteronomy 6:4 reads Hear, O Isreal: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah NWT.

Paul, in 1Corinthians 8:6, also agrees with God-Jehovah being one. 1Corinthians 8:6 says yet for us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we for Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we live NKJV.

Here we see that Paul makes it very clear that Jehovah is one, He’s one God, and only the father is Jehovah.

Since Scripture supports God-Jehovah being one God. We can look at what Deuteronomy 10:17 says about who is the LORD of lords.

Deuteronomy 10:17 says For the LORD your God is God of gods and Lord of lords, the great God, mighty and awesome, who shows no partiality nor takes a bribe NKJV.

The New World Translation translates Deuteronomy 10:17 as follows:
For Jehovah your God is the God of gods, and the Lord of lords, the God great, mighty and fear-inspiring, who treats none with partiality nor accepts a bribe.


Think about what this means. Of all of those who are lords over anything, then God-Jehovah-is the Lord over them. Right?

Do you think that there could be more than one individual who has the same title LORD of lords? Does that make sense?

If the bible in Deuteronomy says that God is one, and that He’s the Lord of lords, then would it make sense to say if there were two Lord of lords that one of them would have a lord that He wasn’t the lord over?

If the two Lord of lords were equal, then they both would have a lord which doesn‘t make sense and contradicts the bible about God-Jehovah being just one Lord of lords. So the only way we can have a Lord of lords if there is only one Lord-Jehovah over the lords.

The reason I have allowed Scripture to prove that we have one God-Jehovah, and that He’s the one Lord of lords to show something very interesting in Revelation 17:14. Revelation 17:14 says:

These will make war with the Lamb, and the Lamb will overcome them, for He is Lord of lords and King of kings; and those who are with Him are called, chosen, and faithful NKJV.

Who is the Lamb here? He is Jesus Christ right? So if there can be only one Lord of lords and the bible clearly establishes that God-Jehovah is the one Lord of lords accordingly to Deuteronomy 10:17, then how can we have two Lord of lords since Jesus is also called Lord of lords? Is Scripture contradicting itself?

If the Lamb or Jesus is called Lord of lords in Revelation 17:14 and God-Jehovah is called Lord of lords in Deuteronomy 10:17, then how can that be? The only reasonable answer must be that Jesus and God-Jehovah are one, and therefore, they are also one-Jehovah who (Jehovah and Jesus being one) is the Lord of lords. If you noticed that I didn’t say both are Lords of lords, but both (being one) is Scripturally Lord of lords.

If one were to say that Jesus and Jehovah are both equally Lord of lords, it would simply contradict Scripture about God-Jehovah being the only one Lord of lords. In addition, one would have to ask also would God-Jehovah relinquish his Lord of lords title by stepping down and giving it to Jesus according to Revelation 17:14 in order not to contradict Scripture? If that were the case, then either the bible is wrong on announcing that Jehovah is only one Lord of lords according to Deuteronomy, or that God took a bribe from Jesus, contradicting Deuteronomy in order for Jesus to rise up and become the new Lord of lords. Plus that interpretation would be wrong since no where in Scripture does it teach that God would step down or relinquish his Lord of lords title to Jesus or anyone of that matter.

Jesus is not some created being by God and lower than God as some would like all to believe---JESUS IS GOD-THE SON-and JEHOVAH, THE LORD OF Lords.
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Old 10-30-2007, 03:20 PM
 
58 posts, read 83,889 times
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Quote:
Lord in all capitals in the old testament means God-Jehovah who is the only true god spoken. The Jehovah’s witnesses’ New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures Bible translates the all capital LORD we see in the Christian bible Jehovah.
Thank you for your interpretation and for conveying the interpretation of the New World Translation. To the point... in your opinion, do you believe there is a difference in the word, "L-RD" and "L-rd" and "l-rd".

Final question, in your expert opinion, can you explain why Hebrew has no such thing as capital letters?
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Old 11-04-2007, 04:39 PM
 
3,031 posts, read 2,923,410 times
Reputation: 1208
Quote:
Originally Posted by Y'honatan View Post
Thank you for your interpretation and for conveying the interpretation of the New World Translation. To the point... in your opinion, do you believe there is a difference in the word, "L-RD" and "L-rd" and "l-rd".

Final question, in your expert opinion, can you explain why Hebrew has no such thing as capital letters?
I don't consider myself an expert. But, you raise a very interesting question since both Hebrew and Greek don't use capital letters and they didn't use punctuation marks either. I was told from reading a few commentaries that since the pronunciation of God's name has been lost, the tetragrammaton or the four letter YHWH without the vowels were written in place of God's name out of highly honoring it. In many holy bibles, except the New World Translation, the translators capitalize Lord "LORD" when it is refering to God, and "Lord" when it is referring to Jesus Christ in scripture, and "lord" when it is referring to any other person who is not of deity if that makes sense.
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Old 11-04-2007, 05:07 PM
 
Location: All around the world.....
2,895 posts, read 5,351,069 times
Reputation: 988
Default King of Kings and Lord of Lords

Quote:
Originally Posted by antredd View Post
In order to understand who the Lord of lords is, some groundwork on God being one needs to be established as biblical truth.

Deuteronomy 6:4 says Hear, O Isreal: The Lord our God, the Lord is one!

In many Christian old testament bible passages, we see the word Lord in all capital letters. When we see that word in all capitals, it means that the word was translated from the Hebrew Tetragrammaton. The Tetragrammaton are consonants that represent the four letters YHWH identifying the name of God. The covenantal name of God in the Hebrew Bible is written with the four consonants: Yodh He Waw He. This name is known as the Tetragrammaton (Greek for "the four letters").

Although the Tetragrammaton was pronounced freely at the time the Torah and Prophets were written, its holiness in Judaism is such that it is no longer pronounced, except under very rare circumstances. Today, most scholars believe that name was pronounced Yahweh. But the name Jehovah is a corrupted form of that word that many commonly use in the English language today.

Lord in all capitals in the old testament means God-Jehovah who is the only true god spoken. The Jehovah’s witnesses’ New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures Bible translates the all capital LORD we see in the Christian bible Jehovah. So in their New World Translation, Deuteronomy 6:4 reads Hear, O Isreal: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah NWT.

Paul, in 1Corinthians 8:6, also agrees with God-Jehovah being one. 1Corinthians 8:6 says yet for us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we for Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we live NKJV.

Here we see that Paul makes it very clear that Jehovah is one, He’s one God, and only the father is Jehovah.

Since Scripture supports God-Jehovah being one God. We can look at what Deuteronomy 10:17 says about who is the LORD of lords.

Deuteronomy 10:17 says For the LORD your God is God of gods and Lord of lords, the great God, mighty and awesome, who shows no partiality nor takes a bribe NKJV.

The New World Translation translates Deuteronomy 10:17 as follows:
For Jehovah your God is the God of gods, and the Lord of lords, the God great, mighty and fear-inspiring, who treats none with partiality nor accepts a bribe.


Think about what this means. Of all of those who are lords over anything, then God-Jehovah-is the Lord over them. Right?

Do you think that there could be more than one individual who has the same title LORD of lords? Does that make sense?

If the bible in Deuteronomy says that God is one, and that He’s the Lord of lords, then would it make sense to say if there were two Lord of lords that one of them would have a lord that He wasn’t the lord over?

If the two Lord of lords were equal, then they both would have a lord which doesn‘t make sense and contradicts the bible about God-Jehovah being just one Lord of lords. So the only way we can have a Lord of lords if there is only one Lord-Jehovah over the lords.

The reason I have allowed Scripture to prove that we have one God-Jehovah, and that He’s the one Lord of lords to show something very interesting in Revelation 17:14. Revelation 17:14 says:

These will make war with the Lamb, and the Lamb will overcome them, for He is Lord of lords and King of kings; and those who are with Him are called, chosen, and faithful NKJV.

Who is the Lamb here? He is Jesus Christ right? So if there can be only one Lord of lords and the bible clearly establishes that God-Jehovah is the one Lord of lords accordingly to Deuteronomy 10:17, then how can we have two Lord of lords since Jesus is also called Lord of lords? Is Scripture contradicting itself?

If the Lamb or Jesus is called Lord of lords in Revelation 17:14 and God-Jehovah is called Lord of lords in Deuteronomy 10:17, then how can that be? The only reasonable answer must be that Jesus and God-Jehovah are one, and therefore, they are also one-Jehovah who (Jehovah and Jesus being one) is the Lord of lords. If you noticed that I didn’t say both are Lords of lords, but both (being one) is Scripturally Lord of lords.

If one were to say that Jesus and Jehovah are both equally Lord of lords, it would simply contradict Scripture about God-Jehovah being the only one Lord of lords. In addition, one would have to ask also would God-Jehovah relinquish his Lord of lords title by stepping down and giving it to Jesus according to Revelation 17:14 in order not to contradict Scripture? If that were the case, then either the bible is wrong on announcing that Jehovah is only one Lord of lords according to Deuteronomy, or that God took a bribe from Jesus, contradicting Deuteronomy in order for Jesus to rise up and become the new Lord of lords. Plus that interpretation would be wrong since no where in Scripture does it teach that God would step down or relinquish his Lord of lords title to Jesus or anyone of that matter.

Jesus is not some created being by God and lower than God as some would like all to believe---JESUS IS GOD-THE SON-and JEHOVAH, THE LORD OF Lords.


1Ti 6:15 Which in his times he shall shew, [who is] the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords;
Rev 19:16 And he hath on [his] vesture and on his thigh a name written, KING OF KINGS, AND LORD OF LORDS.
Just to add a couple more verses

Yeshua Hamaschiach; Our kinsman Redeemer, Holy One ; Jesus Christ of Nazareth is
His name!!!
God Bless You

Last edited by yhwhshalomjr; 11-04-2007 at 05:09 PM.. Reason: added text
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Old 11-04-2007, 09:22 PM
 
3,031 posts, read 2,923,410 times
Reputation: 1208
Quote:
Originally Posted by yhwhshalomjr View Post
1Ti 6:15 Which in his times he shall shew, [who is] the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords;
Rev 19:16 And he hath on [his] vesture and on his thigh a name written, KING OF KINGS, AND LORD OF LORDS.
Just to add a couple more verses
[/color]
Yeshua Hamaschiach; Our kinsman Redeemer, Holy One ; Jesus Christ of Nazareth is
His name!!!
God Bless You

Amen and thanks for adding to my post. I don't know everything, and I am happy others are willing to add more to the post. God Bless you.
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Old 11-05-2007, 10:31 AM
 
Location: Arizona, The American Southwest
42,453 posts, read 19,287,628 times
Reputation: 80359
Quote:
Originally Posted by yhwhshalomjr
Yeshua Hamaschiach; Our kinsman Redeemer, Holy One ; Jesus Christ of Nazareth is
His name!!!
God Bless You
AMEN to That!!! Jesus is the name above ALL names!
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Old 11-05-2007, 12:00 PM
 
58 posts, read 83,889 times
Reputation: 20
Quote:
Originally Posted by antredd View Post
In many holy bibles, except the New World Translation, the translators capitalize Lord "LORD" when it is refering to God, and "Lord" when it is referring to Jesus Christ in scripture, and "lord" when it is referring to any other person who is not of deity if that makes sense.
Trust me, I think I know the meaning of the word and the various interpretations.

Okay, so the bottom line is that the scripture's are now being translated and the translators are adding their interpretation to the scripture. Good to know they are no longer divinely inspired.

P.S. You forgot to praise the pink unicorn.
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Old 11-05-2007, 01:26 PM
 
443 posts, read 1,080,940 times
Reputation: 232
Isn't god the lord of lords?
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Old 11-05-2007, 03:07 PM
 
Location: Arizona, The American Southwest
42,453 posts, read 19,287,628 times
Reputation: 80359
Quote:
Isn't god the lord of lords?
The Trinity is the All 3 in one God - God the Father, God the Son, and God The Holy Spirit. They're all one.
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Old 11-26-2007, 08:48 AM
 
1 posts, read 5,177 times
Reputation: 11
Quote:
Originally Posted by antredd View Post
In order to understand who the Lord of lords is, some groundwork on God being one needs to be established as biblical truth.

Deuteronomy 6:4 says Hear, O Isreal: The Lord our God, the Lord is one!

In many Christian old testament bible passages, we see the word Lord in all capital letters. When we see that word in all capitals, it means that the word was translated from the Hebrew Tetragrammaton. The Tetragrammaton are consonants that represent the four letters YHWH identifying the name of God. The covenantal name of God in the Hebrew Bible is written with the four consonants: Yodh He Waw He. This name is known as the Tetragrammaton (Greek for "the four letters").

Although the Tetragrammaton was pronounced freely at the time the Torah and Prophets were written, its holiness in Judaism is such that it is no longer pronounced, except under very rare circumstances. Today, most scholars believe that name was pronounced Yahweh. But the name Jehovah is a corrupted form of that word that many commonly use in the English language today.

Lord in all capitals in the old testament means God-Jehovah who is the only true god spoken. The Jehovah’s witnesses’ New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures Bible translates the all capital LORD we see in the Christian bible Jehovah. So in their New World Translation, Deuteronomy 6:4 reads Hear, O Isreal: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah NWT.

Paul, in 1Corinthians 8:6, also agrees with God-Jehovah being one. 1Corinthians 8:6 says yet for us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we for Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we live NKJV.

Here we see that Paul makes it very clear that Jehovah is one, He’s one God, and only the father is Jehovah.

Since Scripture supports God-Jehovah being one God. We can look at what Deuteronomy 10:17 says about who is the LORD of lords.

Deuteronomy 10:17 says For the LORD your God is God of gods and Lord of lords, the great God, mighty and awesome, who shows no partiality nor takes a bribe NKJV.

The New World Translation translates Deuteronomy 10:17 as follows:
For Jehovah your God is the God of gods, and the Lord of lords, the God great, mighty and fear-inspiring, who treats none with partiality nor accepts a bribe.


Think about what this means. Of all of those who are lords over anything, then God-Jehovah-is the Lord over them. Right?

Do you think that there could be more than one individual who has the same title LORD of lords? Does that make sense?

If the bible in Deuteronomy says that God is one, and that He’s the Lord of lords, then would it make sense to say if there were two Lord of lords that one of them would have a lord that He wasn’t the lord over?

If the two Lord of lords were equal, then they both would have a lord which doesn‘t make sense and contradicts the bible about God-Jehovah being just one Lord of lords. So the only way we can have a Lord of lords if there is only one Lord-Jehovah over the lords.

The reason I have allowed Scripture to prove that we have one God-Jehovah, and that He’s the one Lord of lords to show something very interesting in Revelation 17:14. Revelation 17:14 says:

These will make war with the Lamb, and the Lamb will overcome them, for He is Lord of lords and King of kings; and those who are with Him are called, chosen, and faithful NKJV.

Who is the Lamb here? He is Jesus Christ right? So if there can be only one Lord of lords and the bible clearly establishes that God-Jehovah is the one Lord of lords accordingly to Deuteronomy 10:17, then how can we have two Lord of lords since Jesus is also called Lord of lords? Is Scripture contradicting itself?

If the Lamb or Jesus is called Lord of lords in Revelation 17:14 and God-Jehovah is called Lord of lords in Deuteronomy 10:17, then how can that be? The only reasonable answer must be that Jesus and God-Jehovah are one, and therefore, they are also one-Jehovah who (Jehovah and Jesus being one) is the Lord of lords. If you noticed that I didn’t say both are Lords of lords, but both (being one) is Scripturally Lord of lords.

If one were to say that Jesus and Jehovah are both equally Lord of lords, it would simply contradict Scripture about God-Jehovah being the only one Lord of lords. In addition, one would have to ask also would God-Jehovah relinquish his Lord of lords title by stepping down and giving it to Jesus according to Revelation 17:14 in order not to contradict Scripture? If that were the case, then either the bible is wrong on announcing that Jehovah is only one Lord of lords according to Deuteronomy, or that God took a bribe from Jesus, contradicting Deuteronomy in order for Jesus to rise up and become the new Lord of lords. Plus that interpretation would be wrong since no where in Scripture does it teach that God would step down or relinquish his Lord of lords title to Jesus or anyone of that matter.

Jesus is not some created being by God and lower than God as some would like all to believe---JESUS IS GOD-THE SON-and JEHOVAH, THE LORD OF Lords.
Since Jehovah God is the only god ever referred to as Almighty....and since he subjected all things to his son Jesus....then Jesus could rightly be called Lord of lords. But just as 1 Cor. 15:27 & 28 says.....there will come a time when all things will be handed back to Jehovah and Jesus himself will be in subjection to his father....so "that God may be all in all."
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