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What is meant by the scripture I Corinthians 15:29,30-29 Otherwise what will those do who are baptzed for the dead ? If the dead are not raised at all, why then are they baptized for them? 30-Why are we also in danger every hour?
Hi, I don't know too much about it, but it seems as if there were people who were being baptized on behalf of the dead meaning that they did believe in the resurrection to come. Maybe they were doing this because this was symbolizing their belief in the resurrection of the dead or maybe there was more to it in this practice. I don't know. God bless.
Whatever the apostle was speaking of the Corinthians understood, because there had been many sufferings and persecutions and trials and some who were martyred for the hope in the resurrection(rapture i guess) or what would happened if they did all of this in vain and that there would be no resurrection after death
There is some thought that a better translation of this verse would be " baptized in hope of resurrection from the dead." Not the baptism FOR the dead. That is to say, a baptism for one's own resurrection. The churches in Corinth were having problems. There may have been questions about one's own personal resurrection.
As far as being in danger every hour..... don't we all believe that we could drop dead at any time?
I could be wrong, but it was my understanding that these people said they didn't believe in the resurrection, yet they were performing baptism for the dead. Paul was, in effect, saying, "What's the point?"
If you read the preceeding verses (20-28), Paul is talking about death being the last enemy which will be destroyed, and then will come the eternal life spoken about throught Scripture. This describes that there is a resurrection which is brought about when Christ delivers the kingdom to God the Father and all of the enemies of the kingdom are done away with.
Since the Corinthians did not believe in the resurrection, Paul is asking why do you go through all of these motions if you do not even believe in the afterlife? Apparently, the Corinthians were performing baptisms for the dead even though they had no apparent to do so. Even though Paul does not affirm one way or the other as to whether he approves of such practice, he does use the term "they" in reference to the Corinthians, rather than using "we", thereby excluding christians from being associated from such practice.
Since this is the only area in the Bible, that I know of so far, where this practice is mentioned, one can assume that it was not something thought of as being performed as a regular ritual.
I agree with what Urbanlemur said in his post. The city of Corinth was full of pagans and their temples to different gods, and I have read that the pagans did practice a form pf baptism for the dead. For that reason I also believe that when Paul said "they" he was referring to the pagans..
My understanding of Baptism for the dead is after someone has died there are people who baptize them after they are dead and they could have been dead for many years.
My understanding of Baptism for the dead is after someone has died there are people who baptize them after they are dead and they could have been dead for many years.
I think the Mormans believe in baptism for the dead, only a "live" person is baptized for the dead one..Maybe one of the Mormons will tell us
I think the Mormans believe in baptism for the dead, only a "live" person is baptized for the dead one..Maybe one of the Mormons will tell us
You probably don't want that, blue. Anytime a Mormon writes anything on this board, people start foaming at the mouth. Better to leave it alone.
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