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Old 02-08-2014, 10:44 AM
 
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Originally Posted by Mike555 View Post
I will comment on it. First of all, contrary to the claim which many make, and which was made in post #2 of this thread, the Old Testament is a history of God's dealings with men and particularly with Israel which God chose to represent Him to the Gentile nations and through whom the Messiah would come into the world. God used Israel to bless the nations of the world. This is clear from any objective reading of the Old Testament. The idea that the Old Testament simply reflects man's subjective attempts to understand God is a view belonging to neo-orthodoxy. In contrast, orthodoxy recognizes that the Bible is God's objective revelation to man.

The Jews were a disobedient people and God warned them numerous times of the discipline He would bring on them if they continued in disobedience. This included the fact that they would be dispersed and taken into captivity. If memory serves me correctly, I think the first warning by God that He would scatter them among the nations was in Deuteronomy 4:27. God repeatedly gave these warnings. As history shows and which the Old Testament records, and which cannot be denied, at different times the Jews went into Assyrian and Babylonian captivity --> Israel in captivity, the two separate nations. And of course, as history shows, in 70 AD, the Romans destroyed the temple and Jerusalem (this was prophesied in Daniel 9:26) and the Jews were scattered among the nations and remain so today although many Jews are now back in the land and Israel is again a nation, though in unbelief.

Your question is basically why would a God of love give a command to wipe out the enemy even though He said 'you will not kill.' However, God never gave a command not to kill. His prohibition was against the crime of murder. God had instituted capital punishment as part of the Noahic covenant (Gen. 9:6).

The people who were in the land that God was giving to the Israelites were being dispossessed of the land in judgment due to their idolatry. There were instances when God gave the command to kill not only the men, but the women and children and even the animals of the enemies of the Israelites as in the case of 1 Sam. 15:2-3. This was in fulfillment of God's promise to punish the Amalekites for attacking Israel during their desert wanderings after leaving Egypt. See Exodus 17:8-16.


The question you pose is one which is frequently asked. It has been addressed such as here --> Why did God command the extermination of the Canaanites, women and children included?

And the question is posed by those who seemingly cannot understand that God is not only a God of love, but He is a just God. And death is a punishment which God imposes in judgment. Many people want God to conform to their idea of what He should be like and refuse to accept the fact that God has His way of dealing with things. And so they reject the Old Testament's objective revelation of how God dealt with Israel's enemies.

Understand this. During His first advent, Jesus did not come to judge, but to go to the Cross to provide salvation. He also offered the kingdom to Israel at that time if they would accept Him as the Messiah. But when Jesus returns, He will return as judge and will rule with a hand of iron. And it is Jesus who during the Tribulation prior to His return will break the seals on the book with the seven seals which will bring judgments on the earth in which billions will die (Rev. 5 and following). Jesus had a specific mission to accomplish during His first advent. But there is so much more to Jesus than many people want to recognize. Jesus is not only the Lamb of God, but He is also the Lion of Judah.
Great answer, Mike. I appreciate your posts.
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Old 02-08-2014, 11:05 AM
 
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Originally Posted by pastorALly View Post
Simply Googling "Why does a God of love allow ______________? (insert pain, suffering, war, famine, etc..), brings up thousands upon thousands of explanations. Specifically in regards to war there is one condition when it is condoned and used by God. This is not one sided either, for God has allowed His chosen people to be warred upon.
...and yes, under the Constitution of the Mosaic Law God was dealing with only one nation. God's chosen people were allowed to be warred upon because they became unfaithful to God often by taking up either sun worship [ Ezekiel 8 v 16 ] or forming forbidden alliances with pagan nations.

Today international fake ' weed/tares ' Christians have proven themselves unfaithful, and Jesus as ' Commander in Chief ' of angelic forces will take up ' righteous warfare ' [ Rev. 19 v 11 ]. Righteous because unlike men's wars No one righteous will be in harm's way.- Isaiah 11 vs 3,4
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Old 02-08-2014, 11:19 AM
 
Location: Arizona
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Originally Posted by Richard1965 View Post
Good explanation, Mike...
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Originally Posted by Vizio View Post
Great answer, Mike. I appreciate your posts.

The ideologies of men, never cease to amaze me.

So, evil is acceptable for the greater good?
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Old 02-08-2014, 11:20 AM
 
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Originally Posted by Jerwade View Post

The ideologies of men, never cease to amaze me.

So, evil is acceptable for the greater good?
I'm not sure anyone said anything like that.
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Old 02-08-2014, 11:25 AM
 
Location: Arizona
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Originally Posted by Vizio View Post
I'm not sure anyone said anything like that.
Do you believe in the Penal Substitution Theory?
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Old 02-08-2014, 11:34 AM
 
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Originally Posted by TwoWitnesses View Post
Yes Nateswift that is what I have come to believe too, but many others don't see it that way! It's like the Jews were fumbling toward a proper understanding of God. But then, that also means the Bible itselt is not infallible...and there may be lots of incorrect concepts and doctrines therein.
But was there an actual time, even in the NT, that the word suddenly became "perfect" or are the doctrines of Paul, for instance, also subject to being problematic in some areas?
No. There has never been a time nor will there be when whatever is in the hands of and produced by human beings could EVER be infallible! Human beings are FALLIBLE, period. That does NOT mean that it could never contain truth or fallible interpretations of the inspirations of God.
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Old 02-08-2014, 11:48 AM
 
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Originally Posted by Jerwade View Post
Do you believe in the Penal Substitution Theory?
Of course. It's clearly presented in the book of Romans. Christ clearly died as a substitution for us.
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Old 02-08-2014, 11:55 AM
 
Location: Arizona
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jerwade View Post

The ideologies of men, never cease to amaze me.

So, evil is acceptable for the greater good?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Vizio View Post
I'm not sure anyone said anything like that.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Jerwade View Post
Do you believe in the Penal Substitution Theory?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Vizio View Post
Of course. It's clearly presented in the book of Romans. Christ clearly died as a substitution for us.
Then, you believe evil is acceptable for the greater good?
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Old 02-08-2014, 11:59 AM
 
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Originally Posted by Jerwade View Post
Then, you believe evil is acceptable for the greater good?
I've never said such a thing. If you believe God choosing to give himself up for us on the cross is evil, that's your opinion, but the Bible certainly doesn't call it that.
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Old 02-08-2014, 12:04 PM
 
Location: Arizona
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Originally Posted by Vizio View Post
I've never said such a thing. If you believe God choosing to give himself up for us on the cross is evil, that's your opinion, but the Bible certainly doesn't call it that.
He was nailed to a cross; and put to death by godless men.
God, knowing what would happen, doesn't change the fact.
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