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With knowing that polygamy was common as were concubines and harems, isn't it safe to assume that *some* girl-on-girl action happened? Why did God not deal with this in the Mosaic Law and only mentions it in passing in the New Testament?
Silly. You've got your sins mixed up. When two women have sex, it causes men to have impure thoughts, so it's witchcraft.
Apparently it just wasn't a big deal to the OT writers, and Paul didn't like women anyways, so he really didn't think of it either.
But I'll bet he would have peeked in on the action if given the chance,
"Hmm....ahh...interesting...so that's how they do it. I never read anything like that in Leviticus and I've read some pretty raunchy stuff in there....!"
It's not original. I remember reading years ago that in England in the Middle Ages, that lesbians who were caught were accused of witchcraft because they had "enchanted" good men by causing them to have impure thoughts. I think the difference between punishment for gay men and gay women was simply the method of execution.
Try to imagine "Saint" Paul, misogynist par extraordinaire, spying on two lesbians through a keyhole and, in his best Austin Powers imitation, exclaiming:
Hello all. I have been doing some studying and wondering if someone could help me.
It seems that female homosexuality is not dealt with in the Bible, and that ancient scholars (in the Jewish tradition) did not regard it as a problem.
Any thoughts about Deuteronomy 22 v 5 because there it mentions that ' a woman must not put on the clothing of a man ', .... for that is detestable to God.
The practice of a woman wearing men's clothing could open the door to immorality.
Surely a straight man would Not be attracted to a woman dressed like a man, but a woman could be lured by such clothing.
Any thoughts about Deuteronomy 22 v 5 because there it mentions that ' a woman must not put on the clothing of a man ', .... for that is detestable to God.
The practice of a woman wearing men's clothing could open the door to immorality.
Surely a straight man would Not be attracted to a woman dressed like a man, but a woman could be lured by such clothing.
I dunno. It seems to me that men and women both wore long dresses back there. How much different did a man's robe look from a woman's?
Any thoughts about Deuteronomy 22 v 5 because there it mentions that ' a woman must not put on the clothing of a man ', .... for that is detestable to God.
The practice of a woman wearing men's clothing could open the door to immorality.
Surely a straight man would Not be attracted to a woman dressed like a man, but a woman could be lured by such clothing.
Nothing in that text mentioned anything about female homo-eroticism. One could say that a lipstick lesbian is not doing anything detestable in the sight of God.
Since women technically cannot have intercourse, I don't think God looks at women acting like lesbians to please a man as acting sinfully. Why? Because surely in a time when men had multiple wives (and come on men, let's not pretend we don't get turned on by lipstick lesbian action) God would have said SOMETHING about this.
For example, if I had 3 wives back then and wanted to get things going in the bedroom, maybe I would get them to start fondling each other and kissing. Just being honest here.
I don't see why a man with more than one wife wouldn't take advantage of that. God, knowing that many men are attracted to seeing women show physical affection to one another, could have said SOMETHING about this. He didn't.
Nothing in that text mentioned anything about female homo-eroticism. One could say that a lipstick lesbian is not doing anything detestable in the sight of God.
Since women technically cannot have intercourse, I don't think God looks at women acting like lesbians to please a man as acting sinfully. Why? Because surely in a time when men had multiple wives (and come on men, let's not pretend we don't get turned on by lipstick lesbian action) God would have said SOMETHING about this.
For example, if I had 3 wives back then and wanted to get things going in the bedroom, maybe I would get them to start fondling each other and kissing. Just being honest here.
I don't see why a man with more than one wife wouldn't take advantage of that. God, knowing that many men are attracted to seeing women show physical affection to one another, could have said SOMETHING about this. He didn't.
No man should have more than one wife. Also, the Scripture teaches sexual relations only in the confines of marriage, and there can be no marriage between a woman and a woman in the eyes of God. Therefore, female homosexual acts would be sin and something one should avoid entirely.
With knowing that polygamy was common as were concubines and harems, isn't it safe to assume that *some* girl-on-girl action happened? Why did God not deal with this in the Mosaic Law and only mentions it in passing in the New Testament?
The Mosaic Law is only the cornerstone of the Judaic law and tradition. There is much, much more aside from that. Since the 1st century church had strong Jewish roots and ties, and was influenced by Judaism largely, the prohibition was not needing to be mentioned as it was well known. As Jesus had said in his lifetime, he had not come to abolish the law and the prophets... but to fulfill them.
So, it was well known at that time that homosexual acts between women were forbidden by the rabbis on the basis of Leviticus 18:3:"Do not follow the ways of Egypt where you once lived, nor of Canaan, where I will be bringing you. Do not follow [any] of their customs." One of these acts is lesbianism, and is specifically stated as such by the Rambam in Hilchos Issurei Bi'ah. Chazal (the Rabbis of the Talmud) explain in Sifra Acharei Mot 8:8-9 that one of the forbidden evil customs is lesbianism. the marriage of women to each other, as well as a man to a woman and her daughter.
The Talmud follows this view, forbidding lesbianism. Like all Rabbinical prohibitions, violation can incur lashes. Female homosexuality is regarded as less serious than male homosexuality.One of these acts is lesbianism, and is specifically stated as such by the Rambam in Hilchos Issurei Bi'ah.
The various liberal movements have more lenient views on this- but it is forbidden in Orthodox Judaism.
The problem with Western Christianity is that it neglects much of the Jewish law and scriptures that are extra-Biblical - viewing them arbitrarily as non-scriptural and void of divine truth - and thus it has incomplete understandings of many things in it's own Book. But one's understanding of the Christian Bible is not complete without the historical and spiritual background offered by the other Jewish scriptures.
Last edited by Led Zeppelin; 08-08-2014 at 02:08 PM..
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