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He did claim to be God. He also claimed to be the Messiah, which Isaiah 9:6 states is God.
You mean this right here?:
5.For a child has been born to us, a son given to us, and the authority is upon his shoulder, and the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father, called his name, "the prince of peace."
6.To him who increases the authority, and for peace without end, on David's throne and on his kingdom, to establish it and to support it with justice and with righteousness; from now and to eternity, the zeal of the Lord of Hosts shall accomplish this.
I don't see anything stating him being G-d...Weird, huh?...
No. He actually claimed to be God. Explicitly in Rev 1. In Rev 4 God is worshiped, and in Rev 5, Jesus is worshiped.
But throughout John's Gospel, Jesus used several "I AM" statements. It wasn't an accident, but it was clearly him referencing God's statement of "I AM" in the OT.
I AM has nothing to do with G-d...Actually, G-d said "I Exist"...
No. He did not. You're absolutely correct in that. He clearly said the Father is the Father and he is the Son. They are 2 different persons, but one God.
We live in a fallen world because of original sin of our first parents, Adam and Eve. Mary was not born that way because she was to be Jesus' mother. As the angel said to Mary, "Hail Mary full of grace, meaning having no sin." The Jews of that day understood what the angel meant with "full of grace."
This is a silly question based on the absurd idea that human beings are somehow "infected" with "original sin" because of Adam and Eve. Preposterous! First . . . sin is NOT a disease or infection that can be passed on. It is error (missing the mark) and we ALL are capable of it. Second it must be "committed" . . . you must do something wrong to "miss the mark." Every human being ever born has the ABILITY to commit sin (err or be wrong) and our earliest days on earth are the times when we usually do so as we must learn what is Good and what is Evil. No one can be born with sin. We have no idea if or when Mary sinned nor do we have any idea if or when Jesus sinned. We can take it on faith that neither of them did or only Mary did because that is all we have . . . faith. That is why this is a silly question.
Quote:
Originally Posted by janelle144
We are but Mary was not. She was conceived without sin. If you don't believe in original sin then you won't understand. It is amazing.
What is amazing is that people actually believe sin was passed on from some original sin like some kind of disease. It is just "missing the mark" . . . being wrong. Magical thinking abounds.
What is amazing is that people actually believe sin was passed on from some original sin like some kind of disease. It is just "missing the mark" . . . being wrong. Magical thinking abounds.
It's easy to spot the irrationality in the other person's religion, isn't it?
According to Catholicism, Mother Mary was sinless. In order to serve as the Vessel for Jesus, she had to be just as pure, which is the Catholic reasoning. What I want to know is, do any other denominations believe that too? Also, is that belief validated by any Scriptural passage, or is it something to be taken for granted?
No only GOD and his righteous Angels are sinless , and mother Mary certainly isn't either one of the two.
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