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I agree entirely Mystic, we are in the Lord's Day when we are in the Spirit of it, by that i mean partaking in the wonder of it as we do when we rise in the morning and see feel the wonder of a brand new day dawning and announce to ourselves this is the day that the Lord has made. Early in the morning my song shall rise to you.
MysticPhD,
re: "The ACT of getting in the Spirit makes it the Lord's Day..."
re: "..., it is irrelevant what WE do because the Lord is ALWAYS with us so it is always the Lord's Day..."
There you go again. First you say that the Lord's Day is made by getting in the Spirit, and then you turn right around and say that it doesn't matter what we do because it is always the Lord's Day.
I agree entirely Mystic, we are in the Lord's Day when we are in the Spirit of it, by that i mean partaking in the wonder of it as we do when we rise in the morning and see feel the wonder of a brand new day dawning and announce to ourselves this is the day that the Lord has made. Early in the morning, my song shall rise to you.
Sunday, of course. It's the day Jesus rose. The early church referred to it as "The Lord's Day" and it was separate from the Sabbath.
Quote:
Originally Posted by jimmiej
It's rather amazing (then again, perhaps not) that so many who profess to be Christians and followers of 'the Bible' have no clue what 'the Lord's Day' is! Someone even gets a 'thumbs up' for saying that the day is Sunday which is simply not true. How many of you have actually had a grounding in the very book you claim to uphold?
The thread question is, What Day is "The Lord's Day"? And so, with a view to answering that question one must look to the source ...the Bible. And, by doing so does not necessarily make one a 'fundie' ...it simply means that someone has asked a question about scripture which therefore requires a scriptural answer. As a 'lay-Bible scholar', this is what I try to do in attempting to answer any theological question that is asked. I'm not interested in man-made doctrines or opinions, mine included.
So far - from most but not all - I've seen nothing but a regurgitation of the traditional brainwashing of Christendom pertaining to a day (Sunday) that was made 'holy' and, indeed, called 'the Lord's day' by the Roman Catholic Church. From then on most Christian denominations followed suit and began to refer to Sunday by that title. NOWHERE in scripture (remember, it IS scripture we're talking about here) is Sunday (or the first day) EVER referred to as 'the Lord's day', or, for that matter, ever referred to as a 'special' day of any kind.
One more time (<sigh>) ...biblically, the 'Lord's day' is NOT a 24-hour period. It is NOT 'everyday is the Lord's day'. It IS rather a period where John is in vision (yeah, I realize how weird that sounds but that's Revelation for ya) pertaining to EVENTS past, present and future.
Where in the bible does it specify what day exactly John was talking about in regards to "The Lords Day".
Revelation 1:10
10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet,
Sunday crowd usually states it is the Day Jesus rose or uses Rev 1:10, but there is no where in this verse in which John says any day.
Saturday crowd usually uses Matt 12:8, Mark 2:28, Luke 6:5... but there is no where in this verse in which any specific day is mentioned either.
.Matthew 12:8
8 For the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day.
even of the sabbath day.
Mark 2:28
28 Therefore the Son of man is Lord also of the sabbath.
Luke 6:5
5 And he said unto them, That the Son of man is Lord also of the sabbath.
Some will even say its neither and God was referring to a biblical Sabbath Day (Day of Atonement, Trumpets, etc)
So where in the bible does it specify which day is the Lord's Day?
SAAN. The early Christians didn't say Sunday until A.D.150 when it is first used by Justin Martyr. Before that, the early Christians called it the Lord's Day. These Seventh Day denominations always rant on about how Constantine supposedly changed the Sabbath to Sunday. But this is not even remotely close to being true. There was no change made. Here is the earliest writing where Sunday is called the Lord's Day, from one of the earliest church fathers, Ignatius of Antioch written somewhere between A.D. 106-110,
Quote:
"Consequently, if the people who were given to obsolete practices faced the hope of a new life, and if these no longer observe the Sabbath, but regulate their calendar by the Lord's Day, the day, too, on which our Life rose by His power and through the medium of His death--though some deny this; and if to this mystery we owe our faith and because of it submit to sufferings to prove ourselves disciples of Jesus Christ, our only Teacher: how, then, can we possibly live apart from Him of whom, by the working of the Spirit, even the Prophets were disciples and to whom they looked forward as their Teacher? And so He, for whom they rightly waited, came and raised them from the dead" (Ignatius of Antioch: To the Magnesians; Ancient Christian Writers Vol.1, p.72).
From the day of the resurrection on up, the disciples of Jesus worshiped Him as God on every Sunday. I could go through the New Testament and show you verses where the Apostles are worshiping on Sunday (i.e., "the Lord's Day"). But there is one very powerful verse the Sabbath keeping churches have greatly overlooked.
Quote:
"Jesus said to them, “My food is to do the will of Him who sent Me, and to finish His work" (John 4:34).
Now this answer is also aimed at TroutDude's post:
Quote:
Originally Posted by TroutDude
If it created everything, shouldn't every day be the lord's day?
Jesus said His food was to do the will of Him who sent Him (i.e. the Father), and to finish His work. But God had already finished creating, what work did He have left? Well there was the Fall of Man in which sin entered into the world and tarnished creation. Thus God's plan of human salvation is His finished work. This work was done on Sunday, figuratively called the 8th Day. When you read John 4:34 alongside the Ignatius quote you get a much clearer picture without having to dive much deeper into this. Then in light of Revelation 1:9-10 you understand that the Apostle John was worshiping on the Lord's Day (i.e., Sunday) when the spirit entered him and gave him the revelation. I hope this all makes more sense now because this is the crash course on why we worship on Sunday and a very short and precise little crash course
Where in the bible does it specify what day exactly John was talking about in regards to "The Lords Day".
Revelation 1:10
10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet,
Sunday crowd usually states it is the Day Jesus rose or uses Rev 1:10, but there is no where in this verse in which John says any day.
Saturday crowd usually uses Matt 12:8, Mark 2:28, Luke 6:5... but there is no where in this verse in which any specific day is mentioned either.
.Matthew 12:8
8 For the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day.
even of the sabbath day.
Mark 2:28
28 Therefore the Son of man is Lord also of the sabbath.
Luke 6:5
5 And he said unto them, That the Son of man is Lord also of the sabbath.
Some will even say its neither and God was referring to a biblical Sabbath Day (Day of Atonement, Trumpets, etc)
So where in the bible does it specify which day is the Lord's Day?
Fezzilla,
re: " The early Christians didn't say Sunday until A.D.150 when it is first used by Justin Martyr. Before that, the early Christians called it the Lord's Day."
Just so it's understood (in case some think that it isn't) that scripture is silent with regard to calling the first day of the week the Lord's Day.
re: "From the day of the resurrection on up, the disciples of Jesus worshiped Him as God on every Sunday."
Just so it's understood that as far as scripture is concerned, there are only two times mentioned with regard to anybody getting together on the first (day) of the week - John 20:19 and Acts 20:7. There is never any mention of them ever again being together on the first. The John reference has them together in a closed room after the crucifixion because they were afraid of their fellow Jews. Nothing is said about a worship service or day of rest. And it couldn't have been in recognition of the resurrection because at that time they didn't even believe that the resurrection had taken place.
The Acts reference might very well have them together to break bread with Paul because he happened to be in town and wanted to talk to them before he had to leave again. The "breaking of bread" can simply be saying that the disciples got together to eat a meal on this particular first day of the week . The phrase, "to break bread", does not have to refer to a religious service - unless it is specifically stated - but to dividing loaves of bread for a meal. "It means to partake of food and is used of eating as in a meal...... The readers [of the original New Testament letters and manuscripts] could have had no other idea or meaning in their minds" (E.W.Bullinger, Figures of Speech Used in the Bible, pp. 839,840.
But even if the breaking of bread mentioned always did refer to the Lord’s Supper, it had nothing to do with placing a special emphasis on the first day of the week because Acts 2:46 says that they broke bread every day.
Also, a further explanation taken from B Ward Powers’ First Corinthians - An Exegetical and Explanatory Commentary:
"The expression 'the breaking of bread' found in Acts 2 was commonly used amongst the Jews to refer to the sharing of a meal in conscious religious fellowship, and this usage is found in the New Testament, not least in the Gospel by the same author as Acts and even elsewhere in the Acts."
"The significance of the religious aspect of the breaking of bread would be greatly heightened for the disciples in the light of the Last Supper, but this is not the same as saying that they held a ritual meal deliberately re-enacting the Last Supper in *conscious obedience to the command of Christ, commemorating his death through eating bread and drinking a cup; and these features would be necessary if we are to regard the 'breaking of bread' as equating with the Lord’s Supper."
"Rather, the evidence indicates that in the New Testament the expression 'the breaking of bread' or 'broke bread' refers to the usual Jewish practice of prayer with which a hunger-satisfying meal commenced. When we recognize that references to the breaking of bread are not references to the Lord’s Supper, we see the significance of what we learn from Paul’s teaching in 1 Corinthians."
If I haven't said this previously ...the Lord's day is mentioned just one time in the Bible and is found in Revelation 1:10. The term isn't used to denote a particular 24-hour period at all but rather concerns visions pertaining to last day events when the Lord returns, i.e. the day of the Lord. Whatever anyone else has done with the term is not scriptural but man-made.
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