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Old 06-23-2018, 05:14 PM
 
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Every Christian knows that Jesus is the "Son of God." I have a personal interpretation of the phrase that is different from how the phrase is commonly understood. John 3:16 says, "For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life." It is my understanding that the phrase "only begotten" is the translation of the Greek word "monogenes." However, some bible scholars, rather than translate that phrase as "only begotten," would actually consider a more accurate translation to be something like "one-of-a-kind," "special," or "unique." This latter interpretation could be corroborated by the verse Hebrews 11:17-19. In this verse, Isaac is referred to as the "only begotten (monogenes)" son of Abraham, even though Isaac was not actually Abraham's only son; he also begat Ishmael, but Isaac was Abraham's "special" son.

Furthermore, there is a group of beings in the Bible who are referred to as the "sons of God." Some examples are Genesis 6:1-2 – Now it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born to them, that the sons of God saw the daughters of men, that they [were] beautiful; and they took wives for themselves of all whom they chose, or Job 1:6 – Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD . . . . My belief is that Jesus considers himself to be one of these "sons of God." This can be corroborated by John 10:34-36 – "Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your law, 'I said, "You are gods" '? If He called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, 'You are blaspheming,' because I said, 'I am the Son of God'?" In the first verse, Jesus is referring to Psalms 82:6 – I said, "You [are] gods, And all of you [are] children of the Most High"; this verse is addressing the sons of God. So Jesus is saying that he himself is one of the "gods" or "children of the Most High" mentioned in Psalms.

So putting these two observations together, I come to the conclusion that Jesus is not just one of the sons of God but is a special, unique, one-of-a-kind member of the sons of God. This might disagree with the traditional interpretation of the phrase, but I think my interpretation is more biblically accurate. Do you agree with my conclusion?
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Old 06-23-2018, 06:25 PM
 
Location: El Paso, TX
33,227 posts, read 26,434,639 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rmb448 View Post
Every Christian knows that Jesus is the "Son of God." I have a personal interpretation of the phrase that is different from how the phrase is commonly understood. John 3:16 says, "For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life." It is my understanding that the phrase "only begotten" is the translation of the Greek word "monogenes." However, some bible scholars, rather than translate that phrase as "only begotten," would actually consider a more accurate translation to be something like "one-of-a-kind," "special," or "unique." This latter interpretation could be corroborated by the verse Hebrews 11:17-19. In this verse, Isaac is referred to as the "only begotten (monogenes)" son of Abraham, even though Isaac was not actually Abraham's only son; he also begat Ishmael, but Isaac was Abraham's "special" son.

Furthermore, there is a group of beings in the Bible who are referred to as the "sons of God." Some examples are Genesis 6:1-2 – Now it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born to them, that the sons of God saw the daughters of men, that they [were] beautiful; and they took wives for themselves of all whom they chose, or Job 1:6 – Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD . . . . My belief is that Jesus considers himself to be one of these "sons of God." This can be corroborated by John 10:34-36 – "Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your law, 'I said, "You are gods" '? If He called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, 'You are blaspheming,' because I said, 'I am the Son of God'?" In the first verse, Jesus is referring to Psalms 82:6 – I said, "You [are] gods, And all of you [are] children of the Most High"; this verse is addressing the sons of God. So Jesus is saying that he himself is one of the "gods" or "children of the Most High" mentioned in Psalms.

So putting these two observations together, I come to the conclusion that Jesus is not just one of the sons of God but is a special, unique, one-of-a-kind member of the sons of God. This might disagree with the traditional interpretation of the phrase, but I think my interpretation is more biblically accurate. Do you agree with my conclusion?
As far as John 3:16 goes, yes, it is μονογενῆ - monogenē, and is better understood as 'the unique' Son of God.

But with regard to the bene ha elohim - sons of God, in the Hebrew Bible, such as Genesis 6:2,4, that is a reference to created angelic beings. Jesus is not a created being. He isn't a creature. He is instead the eternally existing second Person of the Trinity, who Himself created all that has been created. Before coming into the human race as a man, Jesus, the Word of God always existed as God. Now, one of His titles is the Son of God, and at least one reason He is called the Son of God is given by the angel Gabriel (Luke 1:19) in Luke 1:35.
Luke 1:35 The angel answered and said to her, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; and for that reason the holy Child shall be called the Son of God.
In Hebrews 1:6 all the created angels are commanded to worship Jesus. Only God is to be worshiped.
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Old 06-23-2018, 06:33 PM
 
Location: Southwestern, USA, now.
21,020 posts, read 19,372,767 times
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Yes.
There are no 2 of me.
There are no 2 snowflakes.
There is one that went out into the Universe of Creation...and came immediately back to the Father...unscathed, untouched by all that surrounded him....no stopping to smell the roses...
came immediately Home.
That would be Hansa, the Pure Swan, untouched by Maya, in Hinduism...the One Pure Soul.
Jesus is, indeed, unique.

There can be only one.
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Old 06-23-2018, 06:50 PM
 
49 posts, read 45,004 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mike555 View Post

But with regard to the bene ha elohim - sons of God, in the Hebrew Bible, such as Genesis 6:2,4, that is a reference to created angelic beings. Jesus is not a created being. He isn't a creature. He is instead the eternally existing second Person of the Trinity, who Himself created all that has been created. Before coming into the human race as a man, Jesus, the Word of God always existed as God. Now, one of His titles is the Son of God, and at least one reason He is called the Son of God is given by the angel Gabriel (Luke 1:19) in Luke 1:35.
Then what did Jesus mean in John 10:34-36?
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Old 06-23-2018, 06:58 PM
 
18,172 posts, read 16,390,729 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rmb448 View Post
Every Christian knows that Jesus is the "Son of God." I have a personal interpretation of the phrase that is different from how the phrase is commonly understood. John 3:16 says, "For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life." It is my understanding that the phrase "only begotten" is the translation of the Greek word "monogenes." However, some bible scholars, rather than translate that phrase as "only begotten," would actually consider a more accurate translation to be something like "one-of-a-kind," "special," or "unique." This latter interpretation could be corroborated by the verse Hebrews 11:17-19. In this verse, Isaac is referred to as the "only begotten (monogenes)" son of Abraham, even though Isaac was not actually Abraham's only son; he also begat Ishmael, but Isaac was Abraham's "special" son.

Furthermore, there is a group of beings in the Bible who are referred to as the "sons of God." Some examples are Genesis 6:1-2 – Now it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born to them, that the sons of God saw the daughters of men, that they [were] beautiful; and they took wives for themselves of all whom they chose, or Job 1:6 – Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD . . . . My belief is that Jesus considers himself to be one of these "sons of God." This can be corroborated by John 10:34-36 – "Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your law, 'I said, "You are gods" '? If He called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, 'You are blaspheming,' because I said, 'I am the Son of God'?" In the first verse, Jesus is referring to Psalms 82:6 – I said, "You [are] gods, And all of you [are] children of the Most High"; this verse is addressing the sons of God. So Jesus is saying that he himself is one of the "gods" or "children of the Most High" mentioned in Psalms.

So putting these two observations together, I come to the conclusion that Jesus is not just one of the sons of God but is a special, unique, one-of-a-kind member of the sons of God. This might disagree with the traditional interpretation of the phrase, but I think my interpretation is more biblically accurate. Do you agree with my conclusion?
Yes, the only unique son of God.
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Old 06-23-2018, 07:06 PM
 
18,172 posts, read 16,390,729 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mike555 View Post
As far as John 3:16 goes, yes, it is μονογενῆ - monogenē, and is better understood as 'the unique' Son of God.

But with regard to the bene ha elohim - sons of God, in the Hebrew Bible, such as Genesis 6:2,4, that is a reference to created angelic beings. Jesus is not a created being. He isn't a creature. He is instead the eternally existing second Person of the Trinity, who Himself created all that has been created. Before coming into the human race as a man, Jesus, the Word of God always existed as God. Now, one of His titles is the Son of God, and at least one reason He is called the Son of God is given by the angel Gabriel (Luke 1:19) in Luke 1:35.
Luke 1:35 The angel answered and said to her, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; and for that reason the holy Child shall be called the Son of God.
In Hebrews 1:6 all the created angels are commanded to worship Jesus. Only God is to be worshiped.
The word means honor/reverence not religious worship and even in Hebrews 1 Jesus is not The God as even then he is said to have a God, thus someone above him.


9 Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.


This is wht Jesus in John 14:28 was speaking of himself not a nature.



KJV John 14: 28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.

The use of "I" means the person not a nature. God the father is greater than Jesus.


Oh and Greater/Meizon in Greek is a superlative and means bigger and better.
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Old 06-23-2018, 09:09 PM
 
Location: El Paso, TX
33,227 posts, read 26,434,639 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rmb448 View Post
Then what did Jesus mean in John 10:34-36?
In John 10:34-36 Jesus is indeed quoting Psalm 82. While there are a number of ways in which Psalm 82 has been interpreted, the only valid interpretation as I see it is the divine view in which it is recognized that the angelic members of God's divine counsel are being addressed. The ESV correctly translates Psalm 82:1 as follows.
Psalm 82:1 God has taken his place in the divine council; in the midst of the gods he holds judgment:
The Septuagint translates Psalm 82 from the Hebrew into the Greek (in the Septuagint it is Psalm 81) as,
Psalm 81:1 Ψαλμὸς τῷ ᾿Ασάφ. - Ο ΘΕΟΣ ἔστη ἐν συναγωγῇ θεῶν, ἐν μέσῳ δὲ θεοὺς διακρινεῖ.

Psalm 81:1 [A Psalm for Asaph.] God stands in the assembly of gods; and in the midst [of them] will judge gods.

https://www.ellopos.net/elpenor/gree...ook=24&page=81
The Jews whom Jesus was addressing understood that there were other elohim besides Yahweh, although no other elohim is in the same class as Yahweh and in fact were created by Yahweh. These other elohim, by virtue of having been directly created by Yahweh are 'sons of God.' But this doesn't mean that Jesus was identifying Himself as one of the created elohim, for He prefixes His statement in John 10:34-36 with the statement that He and the Father are one (v. 30) and then in v. 38 saying that the Father was in Him and He was in the Father. This is not said of any created angel.

Hebrews 1:5, quoting Psalm 2:7 says,
Hebrews 1:5 For to which of the angels did God ever say, “You are my Son, today I have begotten you”? Or again, “I will be to him a father, and he shall be to me a son”?
The answer of course is that God never said that to any of the created angels. But He did say it of Jesus.

Now, in the Old Testament, there are pre-incarnate appearances of Jesus as the 'angel of the Lord.' But this is not a reference to a created angel but is identified as being Yahweh Himself.

In quoting Psalm 82, Jesus is Jesus asserting not only his divine nature, but also His equal heavenly authority with the Father. He was not identifying Himself as one of the created angelic beings.

Old Testament scholar Michael Heiser presents his view of Jesus' quotation of Psalm 82 in John 10:34.
Naked Bible 109: John 10, gods or Men? – The Naked Bible Podcast

Last edited by Michael Way; 06-23-2018 at 10:17 PM..
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Old 06-24-2018, 03:32 AM
 
9,689 posts, read 10,014,164 times
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These sons of God in Genesis where a line of descendant blessed men from Adam the first born and God picked first born to Joseph , spiritual father of Jesus , which were the sons of God who had the Holy Spirit and were blessed to bring a faith to usher in Jesus Christ .after Jesus this line stopped and all the saints of Christ became the sons and daughters of God ........ The Jesus who was born in a virgin of the incarnation of God put in Mary , who became the only begotten son of God............. See God is highest spiritually authority above Adam and the Holy Angels of God are below Adam in spiritual authority , but Adam fell and lost His place before God , where then Jesus sits with God equal in all spiritual authority along with the saints of Christ
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Old 06-24-2018, 04:37 AM
 
Location: Southern Oregon
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The real problem with your perception, rmb, is that it nullifies the basis of the religion that has replaced following the Way Jesus embodied with the worship of the person in order to give greater control to those who set up that religion and avoid the embarrasment of failing that Way. "If you love me, DO as I have taught you."
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Old 06-24-2018, 09:43 AM
 
49 posts, read 45,004 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mike555 View Post
The Jews whom Jesus was addressing understood that there were other elohim besides Yahweh, although no other elohim is in the same class as Yahweh and in fact were created by Yahweh. These other elohim, by virtue of having been directly created by Yahweh are 'sons of God.' But this doesn't mean that Jesus was identifying Himself as one of the created elohim, for He prefixes His statement in John 10:34-36 with the statement that He and the Father are one (v. 30) and then in v. 38 saying that the Father was in Him and He was in the Father. This is not said of any created angel.

Hebrews 1:5, quoting Psalm 2:7 says,
Hebrews 1:5 For to which of the angels did God ever say, “You are my Son, today I have begotten you”? Or again, “I will be to him a father, and he shall be to me a son”?
The answer of course is that God never said that to any of the created angels. But He did say it of Jesus.

Now, in the Old Testament, there are pre-incarnate appearances of Jesus as the 'angel of the Lord.' But this is not a reference to a created angel but is identified as being Yahweh Himself.

In quoting Psalm 82, Jesus is Jesus asserting not only his divine nature, but also His equal heavenly authority with the Father. He was not identifying Himself as one of the created angelic beings.

Old Testament scholar Michael Heiser presents his view of Jesus' quotation of Psalm 82 in John 10:34.
Naked Bible 109: John 10, gods or Men? – The Naked Bible Podcast
But that was my whole point. I said that Jesus is a "special, unique, one-of-a-kind" son of God, which is totally consistent with what you're saying. Consider John 1:1-3,

Quote:
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made.
and then compare that to Genesis 1:26,

Quote:
26 Then God said, "Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness; let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, over the birds of the air, and over the cattle, over all the earth and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth."
Many scholars believe the "us" in the creation story referred to the sons of God. The sons of God contributed to the creation, just as the "Word" did in John 1.

As a side note, I have my doubts that the sons of God were the same as angels. In Matthew 22:29-30, Jesus says that the angels do not marry, yet in Genesis 6:1-2 the sons of God are marrying human women. So, if we are to assume consistency between Old and New Testaments, the sons of God cannot be mere angels.
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