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Old 08-17-2018, 08:28 AM
Status: "be angry and sin not!" (set 4 days ago)
 
4,697 posts, read 1,221,381 times
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Quote:
this doesn't even touch my question
no it did answer your question.
It is the roots of your question.
His name comes from these old testament roots.
These old testament promises of his deeds..

Psa 118:15

The voice of rejoicing and salvation is in the tabernacles of the righteous: the right hand of the LORD doeth valiantly.

Psa 118:16

The right hand of the LORD is exalted: the right hand of the LORD doeth valiantly.
AND THAT PROMISE IS FOR THE VERY LAST DAYS! AND FULFILLMENTS OF THE FEAST OF TABERNACLES

Read more: Where are believers getting the term "Yeshua" from?
To understand that I must ask you if you have seen the movie "Dances with Wolves". Did you notice how the native PEOPLES name that officer .. After his deeds.. He danced with the wolves ..
Well the roots of Hebrews and of native american are the same ROOTS .
AND The naming practices were exactly the same. You are what you have done or will do .
The one named for his deeds is Jesus / THE PROMISE OF salvation.. In hebrew Yeshua.
The stone the builders rejected has done valiently and provided salvation yet again and yet again.
( SEE THE SCRIPTURES I POSTED FOR ONE TINY PROMISES OF HIS SALVATION OUT OF MANY SUCH PROMISES ) ..

Last edited by n..Xuipa; 08-17-2018 at 08:46 AM..
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Old 08-17-2018, 08:30 AM
 
Location: California
704 posts, read 376,096 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by SAAN View Post
I saw these 2 videos short 7 minute videos recently and they give a great explanation as well about Jesus and its transliteration from Yeshua and debunked all the Jesus came from Zeues nonsense as well.



https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Vz9wcwKYf5s



https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0y-B...L&index=3&t=0s
These mean nothing to me for the simple reason that I can find said Youtube videos that will disprove these 10 times over. Where dos it say it in Scripture? Not Strong's, not Pastor so-and so's opinion, not Youtube but SCRIPTURE. I see ImannuEL. That's what I see. Anyways, no more Youtube videos but thanks anyways.
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Old 08-17-2018, 08:43 AM
 
Location: Mobile, Al.
3,671 posts, read 1,538,871 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BBslider001 View Post
This is not correct. I could type it all out, but here it is. There is no Hebrew name for "Iesous". The letter "J" did not even come into existence in after His time here on earth, in the 1600s, when it was introduced into the English language.

Iesous in Greek

"So Yahusha is English for the Hebrew name of the Messiah (anointed King of Israel) and Jesus is the name of the Greek “good man” or Christos. It is that simple. But what does “Iesous” mean in Greek? It has no meaning in Hebrew; as it is not a Hebrew word. In Greek, “Iesous” literally translated means “Hail Zeus”. The name “Jesus” didn’t even exist until the 4th Century and was a later derivative of the late Latin Isus."

This coming from a well studied Hebrew. I am not Hebrew. I am as Gentile as they come, so I ask these questions quite a bit to gain more and better understanding.

Isus was a sun god worshipped by Pagans. So, now we know "Jesus" nor "Yeshua" are not correct yet, we still use it. Not sure why or where it is in Scripture that it says "His name shall be called Yeshua". Now it does say His name shall be called "ImmanuEL", but we insist on the others.
let's examine this claim.
Why there is no letter "J" in the Hebrew.

lets get to the stumbling bock itself. some counter claim on Jesus name by saying that there is no J in the Hebrew language, so our Lord’s name could not be JESUS, that’s true, NO, not in Hebrew. Neither... Letters like 'j, e & v'. they weren't invented until the 17th century. I'm glad you said that. lets clear up this, letter "J", stumbling block.

our, foundation scripture: Revelation 19:12 "His eyes were as a flame of fire, and on his head were many crowns; and he had a name written, that no man knew, but he himself. 13 And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God”. question, who, not what is the new name God?. Revelation 2:17 "He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches; To him that overcometh will I give to eat of the hidden manna, and will give him a white stone, and in the stone a new name written, which no man knoweth saving he that receiveth it". that's he, are us who are saved, only know the name. now the Lord Jesus, Revelation 3:12 " Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name". one more, Revelation 19:12 "His eyes were as a flame of fire, and on his head were many crowns; and he had a name written, that no man knew, but he himself". that day of not knowing is over. that's the reason for the book of revelation. from the stand point of the time this Revelation was written, yes, no man knew God's new name but he himself. why?. because he is the Alpha and the Omega. he knows the end. so by knowing that in the end times, that the the English language will be the dominant language to come. only he knew that the name Jesus will only be known in the last days by this dominating language. just as other kingdom arose and with them, their language dominated, so who knew the mind of God back then. answer, "no man", that's right, NO MAN KNEW, but he himself. and it cannot be the name in use at the time of John writing, BECAUSE THERE WAS NO LETTER "J" IN HIS LANGUAGE AT THAT TIME. so God who is the future, knows the end time name, JESUS is the NEW NAME which is now, we're in the last days. how do we know this, because the Bible, God's word say so. Hebrews 1:1 "God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, 2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds".


So by being no "J" at that time, true, there was no "J" in the Hebrew language, but there is a "J" now, in the English language. which is the dominant language of these last DAYS. Glory to Jesus. and God say that he will not give his "GLORY" to another. Isaiah 48:11 "For mine own sake, even for mine own sake, will I do it: for how should my name be polluted? and I will not give my glory unto another". listen to Jesus, John 17:5 "And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was". so there is only one God and that means only one GLORY. and if Jesus is another as in G2087 heteros, as oppose to being G243 allos with God, then God lied in Isaiah 48:11, God forbid. so the only conclusion is that Jesus is God in flesh as the G243 allos with God. and the name of God, both the Father, and Son is JESUS.

Zephaniah 3:9 "For then will I turn to the people a pure language, that they may all call upon the name of the LORD, to serve him with one consent".


PICYJAG.
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Old 08-17-2018, 08:53 AM
 
21,858 posts, read 16,696,582 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BBslider001 View Post
Ok, so I know it means "salvation", but where in Scripture does it state that this is the Messiah's given name? I see it nowhere. I see "ImmanaEL" in Isaiah. Jesus is the form of another name used all throughout the New Testamant. It was derived from the name of a sun god concocted in early Catholicism, so I see where it comes from, though I don't use it. But Yeshua? Just wondering where this came from or why some of you believers who use it decided to do so?

No, this is NOT a place to argue or put passive/aggressive snarky comments. I have asked this before and been accused of trying to start fights. I am simply trying to understand the thinking behind it, especially with the popularity that has grown to use this term so freely. Correct doctrine=correct thinking about YHVH so that we may worship correctly, that's all.
Quote:
Originally Posted by BBslider001 View Post
This is not correct. I could type it all out, but here it is. There is no Hebrew name for "Iesous". The letter "J" did not even come into existence in after His time here on earth, in the 1600s, when it was introduced into the English language.

Iesous in Greek

"So Yahusha is English for the Hebrew name of the Messiah (anointed King of Israel) and Jesus is the name of the Greek “good man” or Christos. It is that simple. But what does “Iesous” mean in Greek? It has no meaning in Hebrew; as it is not a Hebrew word. In Greek, “Iesous” literally translated means “Hail Zeus”. The name “Jesus” didn’t even exist until the 4th Century and was a later derivative of the late Latin Isus."

This coming from a well studied Hebrew. I am not Hebrew. I am as Gentile as they come, so I ask these questions quite a bit to gain more and better understanding.

Isus was a sun god worshipped by Pagans. So, now we know "Jesus" nor "Yeshua" are not correct yet, we still use it. Not sure why or where it is in Scripture that it says "His name shall be called Yeshua". Now it does say His name shall be called "ImmanuEL", but we insist on the others.
You can see the similarity between the English name Jesus and the Greek name Iesous. Jesus is simply the way we say Iesous in English. In transliteration the letters of one alphabet or language are changed into the corresponding letters of another alphabet.

And the Greek Iesous is taken from the Hebrew Yeshua
A common argument claims that Jesus is not found in the Hebrew Scriptures– the Old Testament and that He is a Christian or Gentile creation only mentioned in the New Testament. True, the name “Jesus” is not found in the Old Testament, as it is an anglicized version of the Greek name Ἰησοῦς (Iēsous). However, Jesus was born in Israel among a Hebrew-speaking people. His name in Hebrew is “Yeshua.” Matthew 1:21 refers to what was well understood by the Jewish People: the name Yeshua means “salvation” or “God saves.” Matthew 1:21 says, “She will give birth to a son, and you are to give Him the name Jesus, because He will save His people from their sins.” His Hebrew name, Yeshua, means “the LORD saves,” and this is confirmed in many Bibles that contain a footnote such as “Hebrew: Yeshua (Joshua), meaning The LORD saves.”

https://www.jewishvoice.org/read/blo...h-christianity
And yes, in English it is absolutely proper to use the name Jesus.
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Old 08-17-2018, 08:56 AM
 
Location: Southern Oregon
16,277 posts, read 7,657,119 times
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Mike gave a good answer. Perhaps the "scripture" you are looking for is Matthew 1:21"She will give birth to a son, and you shall give Him the name Jesus, because He will save His people from their sins.”

As noted by Strong's the Greek used is

Iésous: Jesus or Joshua, the name of the Messiah, also three other Isr.
Original Word: Ἰησοῦς, οῦ, ὁ

2424 Iēsoús – Jesus, the transliteration of the Hebrew term, 3091 /Lṓt ("Yehoshua"/Jehoshua, contracted to "Joshua") which means "Yahweh saves" (or "Yahweh is salvation").

"Joshua" would be a more accurate name in English (The unfortunate change of the "J" sound remains the same) but it would not be a unique name.

The question is whether you have trouble knowing of whom you are speakeing when you use any of those forms?

As a general rule the form in question is used by those who see or maintain a connection to the Mosaic Covenant for whatever reason.
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Old 08-17-2018, 10:11 AM
 
Location: Salt Lake City
21,960 posts, read 22,122,586 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mike555 View Post
In English we say 'Jesus' which is the transliteration of the Greek 'Iesous' which is the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew name 'Yeshua.' Many people simply prefer to use the Hebrew name instead of the English name 'Jesus.'

https://www.gotquestions.org/Yeshua-Jesus.html
Quote:
Originally Posted by Miss Hepburn View Post
Yup. Exactly. Thanks Mike.
Yup, thanks, Mike!
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Old 08-17-2018, 10:15 AM
 
5,963 posts, read 1,704,003 times
Reputation: 908
Quote:
Originally Posted by BBslider001 View Post
Ok, so I know it means "salvation", but where in Scripture does it state that this is the Messiah's given name? I see it nowhere. I see "ImmanaEL" in Isaiah. Jesus is the form of another name used all throughout the New Testamant. It was derived from the name of a sun god concocted in early Catholicism, so I see where it comes from, though I don't use it. But Yeshua? Just wondering where this came from or why some of you believers who use it decided to do so?

No, this is NOT a place to argue or put passive/aggressive snarky comments. I have asked this before and been accused of trying to start fights. I am simply trying to understand the thinking behind it, especially with the popularity that has grown to use this term so freely. Correct doctrine=correct thinking about YHVH so that we may worship correctly, that's all.
It doesn't. Nowhere in Scripture is it used as the name of the Messiah. I get it when people say it was his Hebrew name...but the Scriptures are written in Greek, not Hebrew. So the name Yeshua never appeared.
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Old 08-17-2018, 10:25 AM
 
21,858 posts, read 16,696,582 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Miss Hepburn View Post
Yup. Exactly. Thanks Mike.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Katzpur View Post
Yup, thanks, Mike!
You're both welcome.
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Old 08-17-2018, 10:33 AM
 
Location: State of Transition
78,712 posts, read 70,579,935 times
Reputation: 76698
Quote:
Originally Posted by BBslider001 View Post
Ok, so I know it means "salvation", but where in Scripture does it state that this is the Messiah's given name? I see it nowhere. I see "ImmanaEL" in Isaiah. Jesus is the form of another name used all throughout the New Testamant. It was derived from the name of a sun god concocted in early Catholicism, so I see where it comes from, though I don't use it. But Yeshua? Just wondering where this came from or why some of you believers who use it decided to do so?

No, this is NOT a place to argue or put passive/aggressive snarky comments. I have asked this before and been accused of trying to start fights. I am simply trying to understand the thinking behind it, especially with the popularity that has grown to use this term so freely. Correct doctrine=correct thinking about YHVH so that we may worship correctly, that's all.
I thought "Yeshua" was the Aramaic form of "Jesus". I'm not sure, I think the form "Jesus" came to us through the Greek translation.
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Old 08-17-2018, 10:44 AM
 
Location: Southern Oregon
16,277 posts, read 7,657,119 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BaptistFundie View Post
It doesn't. Nowhere in Scripture is it used as the name of the Messiah. I get it when people say it was his Hebrew name...but the Scriptures are written in Greek, not Hebrew. So the name Yeshua never appeared.
Since the name in the Bible referenced above is the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew or Aramaic which was spoken by the people, that form of the name does not appear in the book, only in the name His family and friends would have used.
for technical accuracy for ignoring the obvious.
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