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Because no where in the rest of the New Testament does it talk of one... in fact, every place where the disciples would refer to one, Jesus speaks against it. I interpret Revelations in the light of the rest of the NT.. no interpretation of Rev. should contradict the clear message found in the rest of the NT.
Right, but the only reason Jesus spoke against it is because the disciples were looking for the literal kingdom right then. They did not understand that Jesus had to die, and that the literal kingdom would come later.
Revelation cannot be overlooked or discounted just because there is no direct reference to a physical, literal kingdom anywhere else. And who's to say that certain scriptures are speaking of a literal kingdom? We cannot pick and choose and ignore things that are Biblical, just to fit our own beliefs.
If there were only one reference in the Bible that Jesus was the only way to salvation and to the Father, would that then mean it was totally invalid just because it was mentioned only once? NO!!!
Right, but the only reason Jesus spoke against it is because the disciples were looking for the literal kingdom right then. They did not understand that Jesus had to die, and that the literal kingdom would come later.
Why didn't Jesus tell them that it would come later? No mention is made of this!
He told many parables about the kingdom of heaven.. Following is one.. would you get any idea of a later literal kingdom from it? Look it over and describe how you would interpret it:
Matthew 13:24 ¶ Another parable put he forth unto them, saying, The kingdom of heaven is likened unto a man which sowed good seed in his field: 25 But while men slept, his enemy came and sowed tares among the wheat, and went his way. 26 But when the blade was sprung up, and brought forth fruit, then appeared the tares also. 27 So the servants of the householder came and said unto him, Sir, didst not thou sow good seed in thy field? from whence then hath it tares? 28 He said unto them, An enemy hath done this. The servants said unto him, Wilt thou then that we go and gather them up? 29 But he said, Nay; lest while ye gather up the tares, ye root up also the wheat with them. 30 Let both grow together until the harvest: and in the time of harvest I will say to the reapers, Gather ye together first the tares, and bind them in bundles to burn them: but gather the wheat into my barn.
Why didn't Jesus tell them that it would come later? No mention is made of this!
He told many parables about the kingdom of heaven.. Following is one.. would you get any idea of a later literal kingdom from it? Look it over and describe how you would interpret it:
Matthew 13:24 ¶ Another parable put he forth unto them, saying, The kingdom of heaven is likened unto a man which sowed good seed in his field: 25 But while men slept, his enemy came and sowed tares among the wheat, and went his way. 26 But when the blade was sprung up, and brought forth fruit, then appeared the tares also. 27 So the servants of the householder came and said unto him, Sir, didst not thou sow good seed in thy field? from whence then hath it tares? 28 He said unto them, An enemy hath done this. The servants said unto him, Wilt thou then that we go and gather them up? 29 But he said, Nay; lest while ye gather up the tares, ye root up also the wheat with them. 30 Let both grow together until the harvest: and in the time of harvest I will say to the reapers, Gather ye together first the tares, and bind them in bundles to burn them: but gather the wheat into my barn.
First you must read on in Matthew 13:36-43 where Jesus explains the parable. Where in these parables does it talk about the kingdom of God NOT being literal? This parable in particular is speaking of WHO will be in God's kingdom, and what will happen to the others....that's all. How in the world can anyone decipher from this vague parable that the kingdom of God is not literal?
Listen to what 13:35 says:
"So was fulfilled what was spoken through the prophet:
"I will open my mouth in parables, I will utter things hidden since the creation of the world."
In no way is this parable saying anything other than what is explained in verses 36-43.
Why did Jesus not tell the disciples then that the literal kingdom of God was to come way off in the future? I guess that's something that only Jesus can answer. But if I had to guess, I would say it was because He wanted them to focus on the things at hand....the present time.
How fired up do you think they would have been without thinking that it was imminent? Did Jesus intentionally make it difficult for them to understand so they would feel the urgency to spread the gospel? Yes, I believe He did!!
If Jesus had said, "well, disciples, we need to go and teach and spread the gospel, because 2000 years from now I'm going to set up my kingdom among you. Hmmmm.....not much urgency in that.
He needed them to feel the urgency to drive them to do what needed to be done. As human beings, a whole bunch of us need dire circumstances to make us get up off of our duffs and really get motivated. The disciples were no different.
"The house is on fire"!!!!! Do folks sit around and wait to be burned up? NO!! They run out of the house screaming the house is on fire!!! That's what Jesus wanted from the disciples....a feeling of urgency to motivate them.
Just something to think about.
But gleaning from the parables that the kingdom of God is not literal is REALLY stretching it. It's just not there.
First you must read on in Matthew 13:36-43 where Jesus explains the parable. Where in these parables does it talk about the kingdom of God NOT being literal? This parable in particular is speaking of WHO will be in God's kingdom, and what will happen to the others....that's all. How in the world can anyone decipher from this vague parable that the kingdom of God is not literal?
............
But gleaning from the parables that the kingdom of God is not literal is REALLY stretching it. It's just not there.
You know what, DOTL? This is the first time I've heard of anyone not thinking that parable was applied spiritually... interesting.
I've always seen that parable as referring to the spiritual kingdom we are living in now.. the wheat (righteous) and the tares (unsaved) are growing up together.. and because of deception by the enemy (satan) they are mixed until the harvest (judgement) when all will be judged. The wheat will go to the barn (heaven) the tares will be burned (hell).
You know what, DOTL? This is the first time I've heard of anyone not thinking that parable was applied spiritually... interesting.
I've always seen that parable as referring to the spiritual kingdom we are living in now.. the wheat (righteous) and the tares (unsaved) are growing up together.. and because of deception by the enemy (satan) they are mixed until the harvest (judgement) when all will be judged. The wheat will go to the barn (heaven) the tares will be burned (hell).
How would you interpret the parable?
Well, I wouldn't say this is not spiritual, because the people of God's kingdom are living side by side with the people of the devil. But this is not referring to God's Kingdom that is to come. Yes, we (Christians) are members of the kingdom right now, but the "barn" has not been built for us to all be together yet.
Okay. Let's see:
The one who sowed the good seed is Jesus.
The field is the world.
The good seed stands for the sons of the kingdom.
The weeds stand for the sons of the evil one, or the devil.
The enemy who sows the bad seeds in the devil.
The harvest is representative of the end of the age.
The harvesters are the angels.
At the end of the age, end of time, end of all things, end of the world:
The bad seeds or weeds or "tares (unbelievers) will be gathered up and thrown into the fiery furnace, or hell.
The good seeds, or wheat (Christians) will be moved to the barn, which is the kingdom of God. Sounds like a pretty literal place to me.
Both the good "wheat" and the bad "weeds" must grow up together until the time of the harvest.
Because the "weeds" are still among the "wheat", that means we ARE NOT in the literal kingdom of God.....not yet.
The literal kingdom of God will only contain harvested "wheat".
The one who sowed the good seed is Jesus.
The field is the world.
The good seed stands for the sons of the kingdom.
The weeds stand for the sons of the evil one, or the devil.
The enemy who sows the bad seeds in the devil.
The harvest is representative of the end of the age.
The harvesters are the angels.
At the end of the age, end of time, end of all things, end of the world:
The bad seeds or weeds or "tares (unbelievers) will be gathered up and thrown into the fiery furnace, or hell.
The good seeds, or wheat (Christians) will be moved to the barn, which is the kingdom of God. Sounds like a pretty literal place to me.
Where is the 1000 year literal reign in this parable? Do you believe it happens at the end in the "barn" (after the harvest, which you said happened at the end of the world)?
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, I would say it was because He wanted them to focus on the things at hand....the present time. 
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