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If I've understood you correctly in all your threads, you believe sins of ignorance are forgiven, but not willful sin? But if you take the Word literally to mean "have NO sin"...then why do you allow sins of ignorance?
Sorry but your question makes no sense to me, you are talking about two different things at the same time.
- "have no sin" refers to the false teaching that one can commit willful sin and they have no guilt...
I allow sins of ignorance because the Scriptures teach they can be forgiven.
You have not accurately INTERPRETED those quotes, Donna. Literalists may be blind guides leading many into pits . . . but those who clearly have some knowledge and mislead bear a heavier burden. I wish I could just credit your motives in chastising those who DO falsely claim love and adherence to God and Jesus as they willfully reject the holy spirit in their hearts (blaspheme the holy spirit . . . which is the only unforgivable sin) and maintain a "state of mind" that is anathema to God. But your false and rigid interpretations of Jesus's love and acceptance (and your acceptance of the savage descriptions of God in the OT) makes you major stumbling blocks to the majority who are not such as those I just described. I caution you again . . . you are under a heavier burden.
Actually Mysticism does
(John 17:17) 17 Sanctify them by the truth; your word is truth.
Harold is using scripture. YOU ARE NOT. You say, he is interpreting wrong, let's hear your interpretation, how did you come by it and is it true?
Sorry but your question makes no sense to me, you are talking about two different things at the same time.
- "have no sin" refers to the false teaching that one can commit willful sin and they have no guilt...
I allow sins of ignorance because the Scriptures teach they can be forgiven.
HK
The Greek word hamartia translates sin. If you are going to believe that 1 John and John should be translated as guilt, then every other place that uses hamartia should be translated the same. So, every time we read the word sin in the bible, we should read it as guilt?
-guilt is transgression of the law
-there is a guilt unto death
-the wages of guilt is death
You can't pick and choose when to translate the same word as either sin or guilt, just so it fits your doctrine.
Why would Paul say not to turn our freedom into a covering for evil if that possibility did not exist? If not sinning is a sign that you are Christian, and sinning is a sign you aren't, then wouldn't Paul warn people who are sinning that they have no freedom?
Galatians 5:13
For you were called to freedom, brethren; only do not turn your freedom into an opportunity for the flesh, but through love serve one another.
Harold is using scripture. YOU ARE NOT. You say, he is interpreting wrong, let's hear your interpretation, how did you come by it and is it true?
I am really tired of your falsely accusing me of not using scripture, Fundy . . . stop it . . . you know it is a lie. You cannot serve God in any capacity as a liar, Fundy. If you want a simple example of how to interpret scripture(my version) and how not to (antjraf's version) read my interchange with antjraf in this thread starting at post 171: Pharisee/ Legalistic mentality?
its means dont lawyer up dont look for loopholes do the obvious --stop doing wrong, do right.
said the monkey to the buzzard straighten up and fly right
nate king cole, sing it
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