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A post on another thread debated that Jesus was born of a virgin and that the Greek Word parthenos only refers to a young "marriageable" woman and does not refer to a "virgin". So this is a thread to debate the meaning of parthenos.
Uh no you don't. It says all through out the Bible Jesus was born of a virgin.
In English, which many Biblical scholars agree is a mis-translation of the original Greek. Furthermore, it does not say throughout the Bible that Jesus was born of a virgin. Only Matthew and Luke include sections about Jesus' birth. In Mark (the earliest of the synoptic Gospels) and John, there is absolutely no reference to virgin birth, nor is there any reference to virgin birth in the Epistles. Check it out. You can read it for yourself.
In English, which many Biblical scholars agree is a mis-translation of the original Greek. Furthermore, it does not say throughout the Bible that Jesus was born of a virgin. Only Matthew and Luke include sections about Jesus' birth. In Mark and John, there is absolutely no reference to virgin birth, nor is there any reference to virgin birth in the Epistles. Check it out. You can read it for yourself.
But the fact is that the New Testament testifies that Jesus was indeed born of a virgin. So you acknowledge that the New Testament mentions a "virgin" birth. So the argument must move on. You stated that many Biblical scholars consider it a mis-translation. Obviously, many biblical scholars don't believe it is a mistranslation either. So the argument must move on. That leave what you believe the mistranslation is that we need to investigage. I have to assume it is something to do with the Greek word translated as "virgin". What is your take?
In English, which many Biblical scholars agree is a mis-translation of the original Greek. Furthermore, it does not say throughout the Bible that Jesus was born of a virgin. Only Matthew and Luke include sections about Jesus' birth. In Mark (the earliest of the synoptic Gospels) and John, there is absolutely no reference to virgin birth, nor is there any reference to virgin birth in the Epistles. Check it out. You can read it for yourself.
There are only two references to the birth of Jesus in the NT, that which is in Matthew and Luke, so, yes, I confirm my agreement that the argument should progress to the definition of the original Greek. My stance is that the word parthenos cannot unequivocally be translated to mean virgin in the modern sense of the word.
There are only two references to the birth of Jesus in the NT, that which is in Matthew and Luke, so, yes, I confirm my agreement that the argument should progress to the definition of the original Greek. My stance is that the word parthenos cannot unequivocally be translated to mean virgin in the modern sense of the word.
There are 13 verses in the New Testament that should shed some light on the use of parthenos, they are:
We can use these verses to get an idea of the context the word is used and how the meaning of "virgin" defines the context and how the translation of young woman defines the context. Sound reasonable?
While I'm enjoying this discussion, I must delay further participation until tomorrow. Kids to get to bed. Looking forward to reading your comments.
Blessings...FC
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