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Old 09-09-2011, 10:30 AM
 
Location: Prattville, Alabama
4,881 posts, read 4,838,605 times
Reputation: 802

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Quote:
Originally Posted by RobinD69 View Post
Marriage is defined, within the bible, as between one man and one woman. Many throughout history have perverted this definition but not changed it because to change it would make one God and that aint gonna happen.

Why must these threads that question the bible become so lengthy and so trivial? The bible is clear on all subject it is the people who are flawed.
The bible was also written and edited by "FLAWED" people who had an agenda. When one takes those PROVEN FACTS into consideration...it is dishonest to state that the bible is clear on any subject. Just saying...

 
Old 09-09-2011, 05:24 PM
 
Location: Valencia, Spain
12,755 posts, read 8,619,666 times
Reputation: 2117
Quote:
Originally Posted by Jremy View Post
....I'm convinced from scripture that it is a personal choice.
So at what point in your life did you sit down, analyse, study and research the options and make a 'personal choice' about which gender to be attracted to?

That never happened in my life, nor do I know anyone to whom it did happen ....so I'd be really interested to know what you, personally did in order to 'choose' to be attracted to the opposite sex.
 
Old 09-10-2011, 10:21 AM
 
Location: US
23,213 posts, read 11,866,283 times
Reputation: 1382
Quote:
Originally Posted by Mike555 View Post
Homosexually is certainly declared by the word of God to be a sin. Homosexuals deliberately reject and twist and redefine what the scriptures say in order to remain in their sin.

Satan promotes and encourages homosexuality because it is an attack on the divine institution of marriage which is to be between one man and one woman, and which was established by God in Genesis 2:22-24.

Romans 1:26-28 cannot be more clear on the matter.
Just an aside...Why was Hawyaw ok with the Patriarchs having multiple wives AND concubines?...It seems that the section of the old testament tat declares one wife is regarding preachers solely...And it does not condemn multiple wives which was still occuring at tat time and in many cultures still does today to the chagrin of feminists...
 
Old 12-20-2011, 03:24 AM
 
33 posts, read 22,454 times
Reputation: 18
I dont know exactly where in the bible it says its a sin but i know it is an abomination. If jehovah wanted gay relationships he wouldnt have made different sexes, he would have just created the same sex.
 
Old 12-20-2011, 04:49 AM
 
Location: Holiday, FL
1,577 posts, read 1,552,971 times
Reputation: 1145
Quote:
Originally Posted by Richard1965 View Post
Just an aside...Why was Hawyaw ok with the Patriarchs having multiple wives AND concubines?...It seems that the section of the old testament tat declares one wife is regarding preachers solely...And it does not condemn multiple wives which was still occuring at tat time and in many cultures still does today to the chagrin of feminists...
I found that to be interesting too. Solomon had 300 wives and more than a hundred concubines, yet he did not fall out of favor with GOD for that. It was because he allowed the wives, not of his faith, to influence his thinking. And, he was not the only ancient patriarch to have more than one wife.

But, when it comes to homosexuality, I believe that in Leviticus you will find that "man shall not lie down with man as he would with a woman". It is quite specific and covers more than just that.
 
Old 12-20-2011, 07:24 AM
 
Location: Central Florida
699 posts, read 450,742 times
Reputation: 414
If Paul is describing homosexuality he is at odds with how gay men and women actually experience their sexuality. They do not "exchange" relations with women for men and vice versa. Plenty of gay men and women have never had sexual attractions to the opposite sex at all. So nothing to "exchange", in the way Paul talks about. So do you really want to hang Biblical infallibilty on this idea (that he describes modern gays)? Personally, I was never a biblicist, but it's something to consider. Nonbelievers will look at these arguments you use, and conclude that Christians are intellectually dishonest or vacuous, based on the arguments people use.

Just consider Paul could be talking about Roman sex orgies in a generalized way, and not specificly about homosexuality. Either way, I don't see this as good evidence that that proves homosexuality is immoral (because what is being described is not accurate to gay experience), in the same way that the story of the sun standing still for Joshua doesn't prove that the Earth is the center of the solar system. Taken literally both are scientificly inaccurate statements.
 
Old 12-20-2011, 07:33 AM
 
Location: Central Florida
699 posts, read 450,742 times
Reputation: 414
Quote:
Originally Posted by the_windwalker View Post
.

But, when it comes to homosexuality, I believe that in Leviticus you will find that "man shall not lie down with man as he would with a woman". It is quite specific and covers more than just that.
It literally says in Hebrew, "a man shall not lay with a man in a woman's bed". "As with a woman" is interpolation. This really proves the law is about preventing men from sleeping with other men in their wifes bed, and fits with alot of other Hebrew social codes that are set up to orient sexuality towards reproduction. How many Christians today live rejecting birth control and recreational sex? I think vey, very few.
 
Old 12-20-2011, 10:33 AM
 
949 posts, read 786,539 times
Reputation: 110
Quote:
Originally Posted by Jremy View Post
I originally posted this over in the thread about gay rights, but then I decided to start a new thread on it here since it is basically a different topic.

Many claim that evangelical Christians misinterpret the Bible to support their stance against homosexuality. In light of that, I'd like to bring up a passage of scripture to consider: Romans 1:18-32 (ESV, emphasis added). I've read this passage many times, and I cannot see how it could be interpreted in any other way than as a condemnation of homosexuality as well as other sins:



The text clearly indicates that:
  • homosexuality is the result of a divine judgment brought about by idolatry (verses 23 and 25)
  • the acts are described as "dishonoring of their bodies among themselves" (v. 24)
  • God gave them over to "impurity" (v. 24)
  • the passions are called "dishonorable" (v. 26)
  • the relations are called "contrary to nature" (v. 26)
  • the acts are called "shameless" (v. 27)
Therefore, the import of this text is that homosexuality is wrong. No excuse is made for it, and it is described as both wrong and opposed to God, as are the other sins listed in verses 29-31.
If you're bound and determined to "prove" it doesn't, there's not a lot we can do to convince you otherwise.
 
Old 12-20-2011, 01:58 PM
 
Location: Santa Ana, CA
298 posts, read 303,647 times
Reputation: 223
What I don't get is why so-called Christians claim the Bible is 100% correct, but like cafeteria patrons, they pick and choose what parts of the Bible to follow and which to ignore. Isn't that called hypocrisy?
 
Old 12-20-2011, 02:05 PM
 
Location: US
23,213 posts, read 11,866,283 times
Reputation: 1382
Quote:
Originally Posted by Jaymax View Post
No. Not in the original languages and cultural contexts.
Yea, It does...
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