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Likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust for one another, men with men committing what is shameful, and receiving in themselves the penalty of their error which was due.
You have to remember that Paul is writing the Romans. What are the Romans famous for concerning men and men? Homosexuals? No. How about gladiators, games, etc. Read my post again again,,,
Notice how when you get to verse 26-27 you had to imply a whole slew of stuff in there. It isn't what it said, but you have implied it to mean what you wanted it to say.
Just like every other preacher.
Look at verse 27 closely. See the receive? Same words that Jesus used here:
"If you lend to those from whom you expect to receive, what credit is {that} to you? Even sinners lend to sinners in order to receive back the same"
What is the "due penalty"? This needs to really be looked at closely. It is the word in the Greek= antimisthia which is 1) a reward given in compensation
Reward given in compensation? In other words, something for nothing. Compensation is what is due to a person who works. It is "anti" to "mithos", and "mithos" is: 1) dues paid for work a) wages, hire 2) reward: used of the fruit naturally resulting from toils and endeavours
And this here on part 2 is talking about the rewards of hard work, like planting fruit, and being rewarded with a crop.
So it is antimithos. Pray tell me what this has ANYTHING to do with homosexuality? And why would the homosexual receive the "due penalty" of their "error", which by the way is the same word as a falsehood. Or delusion. In fact, Paul used this word again here:
For this reason God will send upon them a deluding(ERROR) influence so that they will believe what is false,
Hmm, is this talking about homosexuality? I think not.
See, any time a word cannot be referenced throughout scripture, so that scripture interprets scripture as we are commanded to do, and such a word apppears once,,,then I would question the proper use of that word.
For example. The word "function or use" in some translations. Look it up! It simply means to "use". But it also has a sub definition which claims it is used of sex. How many times in the Word? 2 verses!! 26 and 27 of 1 Romans. Hmm, to convenient.
Also, look at the word "degrading passions". This is described for both men and women. Passions must be talking about sexual thoughts, right? I mean, it should be that simple. Let us look at it closely defined:
1) whatever befalls one, whether it be sad or joyous a) spec. a calamity, mishap, evil, affliction 2) a feeling which the mind suffers a) an affliction of the mind, emotion, passion b) passionate deed c) used by the Greeks in either a good or bad sense d) in the NT in a bad sense, depraved passion, vile passions
Hmm, ok. No sex there either.
It is not talking about mere thoughts, it says they "COMMITTED" the acts.
The Bible is clear about what is a natural sexual act. It is sex between a married man-woman couple. Any other form of sex is considered sexual immorality. That's it. Plain and simple. If out of marriage heterosexual sex is considered immoral, then how can anyone come the conclusion that sex between two unmarried men would be OK? It is such a long stretch that I just don't get it. The Bible calls such acts a "perversion". Also, it is not just about men, because Romans makes it clear that female-female relationships are also out of bounds.
The Bible not only distinguishes between moral and immoral, but also what is natural and unnatural, and same sex acts are unnatural, as is sex with animals.
I agree,I understand everybody's response except except for the OP,which makes no sense at all.
Of course not. It requires abandoning indoctrinations given by the same men and women who have forsaken God AS God and exchanged the Truth of God for a lie.
Delusions are hard to see, because they have been believed in for so long.
But Paul is talking about the apostasy, and the falling away.
We know from scripture that a man's heart has been away from God, because of Adam, and scripture callls it stone. Got it thus far?
Well, how does God in verse 21 then turn around and see the believers heart "darkened". Which, by contast, means it once was illuminated. This is talking of believers.
Verse 24 says God gave them over to the lusts of their "darkened" hearts, so that their bodies would be dishonored. When has lust ever meant just sex? If that is the case, then you are saying Eve had sex with ?? because she desired(lusted) after the TOKOGAE to become wise, like God. To KNOW good and evil.
Verse 25 says they EXCHANGED the TRUTH OF GOD for what? A LIE! What was the LIE? To worship and serve the creature, rather than the Creator, who is blessed forever,,,,AMEN.
After this Amen, Paul goes into what they did:
IOW, the people have been given over to degrading passions and a depraved mind. Why? Because they did not SEE FIT to ackowledge God any longer, they struggle with sin, because the Truth is NOT IN THEM.
Well, enough for now. If you cannot see it, it's ok. But having understood this, other books have now started coming alive. Right now I am in Eccl, and wow, is it mindblowing.
God is so awesome. His Son is so awesome! We have no other God to Honor and give thanks, because as soon as one does fall and serve other gods,,,like money, governments,churches, etc,,,guess what? Darkened hearts,,,,,.
The question is this. Most preachers preach that this is the case. But is it?
What is the "natural" function of a woman? Can she give it up? How?
And as far as burning desires, or simply put,,,passionate,,concerning men towards other men,,,,have you ever been to a football game lately?
I feel these verses do not apply towards the homosexual community, but rather the proper roles of men and women, TOWARDS God and each other.
Notice in verse 28, and what a depraved mind is. What is depraved? Depraved of what, would I be asking. The proper, period. God gives to them to do the things which are not proper, or in a proper role, and then lists the definitions of being unproper in verses 29, 30, and 31.
In verse 32, it says those who KNEW the ordinance of God. What is the ordinance of God? In other words, that which is ordained. Since what? Since the beginning. All the way back to Genesis.
These verses speak of apostasy, plain and simple. God is talking about people who have fallen away, because in verse 21 it says the KNEW God, but did not HONOR Him as God, nor gives thanks.
Hmm,,,
still think He is talking about homosexuals?
ps: I am not condoning homosexuality at all. But pastors use these verses to their own benefit when judging those who are. There is plenty in the Word concerning this on it's own, without Romans 1.
No, when read in context, I think it is very obvious that Paul was referring to idolatry and those people who turned away from his God and were using ritual sex practices when worshipping pagan fertility gods. In the first century, both Rome and Corinth had large temples dedicated to fertility goddesses like Cybele and Aphrodite. Temple prostitution/using ritualistic sex to worship fertility gods was very common at that time.
The question is this. Most preachers preach that this is the case. But is it?
What is the "natural" function of a woman? Can she give it up? How?
And as far as burning desires, or simply put,,,passionate,,concerning men towards other men,,,,have you ever been to a football game lately?
I feel these verses do not apply towards the homosexual community, but rather the proper roles of men and women, TOWARDS God and each other.
Notice in verse 28, and what a depraved mind is. What is depraved? Depraved of what, would I be asking. The proper, period. God gives to them to do the things which are not proper, or in a proper role, and then lists the definitions of being unproper in verses 29, 30, and 31.
In verse 32, it says those who KNEW the ordinance of God. What is the ordinance of God? In other words, that which is ordained. Since what? Since the beginning. All the way back to Genesis.
These verses speak of apostasy, plain and simple. God is talking about people who have fallen away, because in verse 21 it says the KNEW God, but did not HONOR Him as God, nor gives thanks.
Hmm,,,
still think He is talking about homosexuals?
ps: I am not condoning homosexuality at all. But pastors use these verses to their own benefit when judging those who are. There is plenty in the Word concerning this on it's own, without Romans 1.
Well, I would still have to say yes because of what I see in scripture. I am not using this scripture to condemn.
In Romans 1:26-27 it says that men, leaving the natural use of women, burned in their lust for one another, men with men committing what is shameful, and receiving in themselves the penalty of their error which was due.
Quote:
And as far as burning desires, or simply put,,,passionate,,concerning men towards other men,,,,have you ever been to a football game lately?
But yet the scripture is not talking about the men being passionate, concerning towards other men. It says burned in lust for one another, men with men committing what is shameful.
There is nothing shameful about men being together at a football game. They are not at the football game lusting and committing shameful acts as being shown in this scripture.
If you notice verse 27 says the men left the natural use of the women, and the next verse is talking about the men, they were the ones that burned in their lust for one another, men with men. This is not talking about being at a football game and being concerned.
No, when read in context, I think it is very obvious that Paul was referring to idolatry and those people who turned away from his God and were using ritual sex practices when worshipping pagan fertility gods. In the first century, both Rome and Corinth had large temples dedicated to fertility goddesses like Cybele and Aphrodite. Temple prostitution/using ritualistic sex to worship fertility gods was very common at that time.
It condemns homosexuality. Period. It is irrelevant if the acts are a part of idolatry or whether it is done with a temple prostitute, or with a fellow worshipper. It says 'lust for one another' and I have never heard of a prostitute who lusts for anything else but money.
It is hard for me to understand why so many people spend so much time condemning homosexuals. If what they are doing is a sin in the eyes of God, He will handle it. I don't think He needs your help. Also, I was taught that a sin is a sin is a sin. In other words if I have lustful thoughts then I am sinning as much as the person who commits adultery is sinning. I was also thought not to judge, to let God do the judging. Obviously, many posters believe that they are perfection itself, so they have the right to judge others.
It is hard for me to understand why so many people spend so much time condemning homosexuals. If what they are doing is a sin in the eyes of God, He will handle it. I don't think He needs your help. Also, I was taught that a sin is a sin is a sin. In other words if I have lustful thoughts then I am sinning as much as the person who commits adultery is sinning. I was also thought not to judge, to let God do the judging. Obviously, many posters believe that they are perfection itself, so they have the right to judge others.
Not a single person here has judged homosexuals, we are only trying to clarify the Bible verse in question.
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No sex there either. 
