is 'satan' different in the OT vs NT?

[InsaneInDaMembrane]

Originally Posted by Mike555

I will simply refer readers back to post #83. Everyone must decide for themselves whether they believe the Scriptures or not.

Satan is the ruler of this world and it serves his purpose to cause confusion concerning his identity and whether or not he even exists. This makes it easier for him to deceive the world.

So who do you think is deceived in this case?

[firstborn888]

Originally Posted by Mike555

Satan is the ruler of this world and it serves his purpose to cause confusion concerning his identity and whether or not he even exists. This makes it easier for him to deceive the world.

We agree on something (finally!!!). I'll have to say you're absolutely right - the confusion and myths the church has propagated through the centuries (including the convoluted twisting of the Isaiah/Helel son of Shahar and the King of Tyre references) has allowed the real enemy quite a free hand in the 'world' of Christianity.

[ans57]

Originally Posted by firstborn888

We agree on something (finally!!!). I'll have to say you're absolutely right - the confusion and myths the church has propagated through the centuries (including the convoluted twisting of the Isaiah/Helel son of Shahar and the King of Tyre references) has allowed the real enemy quite a free hand in the 'world' of Christianity.

Revelation 2:24 But unto you I say, and unto the rest in Thyatira, as many as have not this doctrine, and which have not known the DEPTHS OF SATAN, as they speak; I will put upon you none other burden.

Blessings...