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Another lesson we are learning. We bought a tax foreclosure house in Texas recently and the house is vacant and not livable - no services, no kitchen etc. Move forward a week or two and the police call saying the has been a theft complaint. Seems the previous owner thinks he still owns the place and everything in the house. The officer said we should have presented a "notice to vacate".
So we are wondering if a "notice to vacate" is ever needed when no one lives at the premise. From all my research a notice to vacate is only for evicting people who live at a residence.
Rather amazing that person who hasn't paid taxes for over 5 years still thinks they own a place. They even put no trespassing signs up. We were planning to put signs up but the previous owner seems to be really confused.
I'd like to hear if anyone knows of a case like this. We will know more next week when our lawyer has a chat with the DA. We are not sure what the process is for vacant properties but we are about to find out.
I don't know about Texas, but in Florida, if the owner can prove that he was never notified of the sale, like if the tax collector had an incorrect address, then the owner could try to redeem the property.
If you have an attorney, they should've counsulted with you on that. Either way, I would have done the notice to vacate just to cross the t's and dot the i's. That way no one could ever come back and say they weren't notified. Might as well do it and not have to worry or spend additional time or money on trying to fix it later.
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