Why do all of California's major cities have spanish names but not Texas'? (Mexican, Washington)

[KoNgFooCj]

California's 6 largest cities:
Los Angeles
San Diego
San Jose
San Francisco
Sacramento
Fresno

Texas' 6 largest cities:
Houston
San Antonio
Dallas
Austin
Fort Worth
El Paso

Weren't they both under Mexican rule until about the same time? Besides that all of Texas' 6 largest cities are located further south than any of California's 6 largest cities with the exception of San Diego and Dallas/Fort Worth which are both at 32 degrees latitude. Are Spanish names less popular further from the West Coast?

[Foamposite]

I thought the names in California were from Spain rather than Mexico

[sub]

No need to turn this into some sort of modern debate.
It’s just the way history played out. How many current major cities in Texas existed under Spanish rule versus California? Places like Houston and Dallas weren’t founded until it became part of the U.S.

[Bubb Rubb]

Look at time of founding for a huge clue.

[R1070]

Texas was its own country as well. And the Anglo names reflect that. Dallas on the other hand has mysterious origins surrounding its name. But the first settlement in the Dallas area had a French name “La Reunion” which is what our Reunion Tower is named after.

[Gaylord_Focker]

Austin and Houston were named after very significant historical figures.

[mkwensky]

Because the major Texas cities were founded after independence from Mexico.

[Ralph_Kirk]

Texas has cities named Austin and Houston for the same reason the United States has cities named Lincoln, Jefferson, and Washington.

[markg91359]

Originally Posted by KoNgFooCj

California's 6 largest cities:
Los Angeles
San Diego
San Jose
San Francisco
Sacramento
Fresno

Texas' 6 largest cities:
Houston
San Antonio
Dallas
Austin
Fort Worth
El Paso

Weren't they both under Mexican rule until about the same time? Besides that all of Texas' 6 largest cities are located further south than any of California's 6 largest cities with the exception of San Diego and Dallas/Fort Worth which are both at 32 degrees latitude. Are Spanish names less popular further from the West Coast?

Hard for me to explain the situation in Texas exactly.

In the case of California, a deliberate effort was made by the Spanish who had colonized Mexico to spread northward and create Catholic missions. San Diego, San Jose, San Francisco, and a host of other cities are all named what they are because a mission was created there.

I assume San Antonio in Texas has the name "San" Antonio for the very same reason.

[kyb01]

Originally Posted by KoNgFooCj

California's 6 largest cities:
Los Angeles
San Diego
San Jose
San Francisco
Sacramento
Fresno

Texas' 6 largest cities:
Houston
San Antonio
Dallas
Austin
Fort Worth
El Paso

Weren't they both under Mexican rule until about the same time? Besides that all of Texas' 6 largest cities are located further south than any of California's 6 largest cities with the exception of San Diego and Dallas/Fort Worth which are both at 32 degrees latitude. Are Spanish names less popular further from the West Coast?

"California" is literally Spanish.

Texas was actually a country for almost ten years. Then later it seceded from the USA and became part of the CSA. California and Texas have very different histories.

And you could just research the probable answers to this on your own. You have a "library" right in front of you. You used it to create this post.