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It appears that you didn't read the "Immigration Court Practice Manual" before replying; however, feel free to point out where it contradicts "actual immigration law" in the United States.
"Manual?" you mean "policy." "Policy" isn't necessarily legally correct.
"Manual?" you mean "policy." "Policy" isn't necessarily legally correct.
I'm interested in finding out where the DOJ's "Immigration Court Practice Manual" contradicts "actual immigration law" and is not "legally correct." Please cite specific examples.
I'm interested in finding out where the DOJ's "Immigration Court Practice Manual" contradicts "actual immigration law" and is not "legally correct." Please cite specific examples.
I already have. Several times. If you don't understand legal language, that's your problem.
Why, under currently existing federal nationality law, does an exception need to be made to include US-born children of members of US Native American tribes?
I already have. Several times. If you don't understand legal language, that's your problem.
Thatʻs funny. If I donʻt understand "legal language" it would present a big problem for quite a few interested parties (e.g. clients, law students, and litigants).
Quote:
Originally Posted by InformedConsent
Why, under currently existing federal nationality law, does an exception need to be made to include US-born children of members of US Native American tribes?
How is this related to the alleged errors in the DOJ's "Immigration Court Practice Manual?"
Thatʻs funny. If I donʻt understand "legal language" it would present a big problem for quite a few interested parties (e.g. clients, law students, and litigants).
Then answer the question... Why, under currently existing federal nationality law, does an exception need to be made to include US-born children of members of US Native American tribes?
Then answer the question... Why, under currently existing federal nationality law, does an exception need to be made to include US-born children of members of US Native American tribes?
That question has already been answered…
Quote:
Originally Posted by Jonah K
It seems that you're hung up on the historical technicality concerning 8 U.S.C § 1401(b). You fail to understand that because of demographic trends, 8 U.S.C § 1401(b) wasn't necessary when it was included in U.S. nationality law, and that it remains on the books to ensure the "forced assimilation" of members of "Indian, Eskimo, Aleutian, or other aboriginal tribes."
Quote:
Originally Posted by Jonah K
Looks like you've flunked demography and history pertaining to members of "Indian, Eskimo, Aleutian, or other aboriginal tribes" in the United States. When two-thirds of a population are already U.S. citizens has offspring with the remaining third that are non-citizens, there's a high probability that those offspring are going to be U.S. citizens at birth. Thus, no additional legislation was required; however, to ensure "assimilation," U.S. citizenship was forced upon the "holdouts."
Here's the "Cliff's Notes" version if you still fail to understand the answer -- "forced assimilation."
That sort of stuff happens a LOT to the losing side. When an American Indian tribe won a war against another American Indian tribe, forced assimilation many times DID happen. It is what it is.
That sort of stuff happens a LOT to the losing side. When an American Indian tribe won a war against another American Indian tribe, forced assimilation many times DID happen. It is what it is.
The US Constitution does not legalize it and it's time we give the tyrannical Leftists in government the finger. (Even if we have to do it 1776 style, which, at this point, I'm FOR.)
Why, under currently existing federal nationality law, does an exception need to be made to include US-born children of members of US Native American tribes?
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