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Old 06-27-2017, 07:59 AM
 
3,167 posts, read 1,042,053 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Pruzhany View Post
Really? Muslim is singular and is the same word as in Arabic, Musliman is the correct plural form (and not Muslims). Jew is the English word for the Hebrew word Yehudi, Yehudim is the plural form. People who speak Hebrew use the word Yehudi. It's not nit picking when things need correction and people need to be educated in the correct forms of words. Learning etymology of Arabic words is an education to learn the truth, denying it is a fools errand to hide oneself and others from the truth.
Then learn that "Musliman" is singular (used for Abraham) and "Muslimeen" is the plural used for more than one as in 15:2, 22:78 and 51:36.
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Old 06-27-2017, 08:27 AM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Pruzhany View Post
How hard is it comprehend Abraham had a true son with his true wife Sara named Isaac. Isaac started the path to Jews.
The path to Jews?

It was Yehuda who was the first of the yehudim.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Pruzhany View Post
Ishmael came about from having sex with a worker/slave (hand maiden).
Hagar was given by Sarah to Abraham to be his wife (ishshah). Read Genesis 16:3. The same word is used for wife Sarah as wife Hagar (ishshah).

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Originally Posted by Pruzhany View Post
Even though Ismael was born first he lost his status when Isaac was born.
He never lost his status as Abraham's son.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Pruzhany View Post
Isaac became the favorite son and Ismael became the ignored son.
In the eyes of the Jews perhaps but never in the eyes of Abraham.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Pruzhany View Post
Psychologically abused, his hate grew and grew and got passed down through the generations. It turned into a tribal mentality where cousins were killing each other over control.
The greed and jealousy had begun with Sarah according to the Genesis. She wanted to have the lot for her son.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Pruzhany View Post
Mohammad arrived on the scene to bring together those cousins with a common belief. Individual tribes started working together and formed a clan called Islam. It held for awhile but soon the Sunni-Shia split occurred and continues until today.
Actually, you have diverted from the truth. It was the cousin Israelites who had caused the split and plotted against their Muslim cousins in Madina. They were just as jealous as their mother Sarah.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Pruzhany View Post
So, You think all siblings love each other now? Same issue now as was then.
Yes, the same issue over inheritance started by Sarah.
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Old 06-27-2017, 09:07 AM
 
Location: Eretz Yisrael
21,376 posts, read 24,137,102 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Khalif View Post
Then learn that "Musliman" is singular (used for Abraham) and "Muslimeen" is the plural used for more than one as in 15:2, 22:78 and 51:36.
Slight error translating Arabic into English.. Muslim and Musliman have the same root but not the same usages. مسلم is not the same as مسلمً.

Even more proof of words taken from Hebrew -een is on the same line of -im which is makes a word plural.

Muslim is not Abraham. It is a contraction of Mu- and asalama. Asalama is from salima which is from shalom. Mu is a prefix of he who has.

You are confusing Musa with Moshe and changes in dialect from the Levant to what is known is Saudi Arabia. Moshe became Mose which became Musa.

Last edited by Pruzhany; 06-27-2017 at 09:31 AM..
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Old 06-27-2017, 09:23 PM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Khalif View Post
Hagar was given by Sarah to Abraham to be his wife (ishshah). Read Genesis 16:3. The same word is used for wife Sarah as wife Hagar (ishshah).
He never lost his status as Abraham's son.
In the eyes of the Jews perhaps but never in the eyes of Abraham.
The greed and jealousy had begun with Sarah according to the Genesis. She wanted to have the lot for her son.
Actually, you have diverted from the truth. It was the cousin Israelites who had caused the split and plotted against their Muslim cousins in Madina. They were just as jealous as their mother Sarah.
Yes, the same issue over inheritance started by Sarah.
I find at Genesis 21:12 that God told father Abraham to listen to wife Sarah because in Isaac his seed (offspring) would be called.
I also found at Genesis 17:16 that God made a promise to Sarah.
At Genesis 17:19 the everlasting covenant is made with: Isaac.
God's covenant would be with Isaac according to Genesis 17:21 through Sarah.
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Old 06-28-2017, 02:29 AM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Matthew 4:4 View Post
I find at Genesis 21:12 that God told father Abraham to listen to wife Sarah because in Isaac his seed (offspring) would be called.
You read Genesis 21:12 but ignore Genesis 21:13.

Read and understand the both. God confirms in Genesis that Ishmael is seed (zera) of Abraham.

People have called Isaac seed of Abraham but God has called Ishmael too seed of Abraham. How can anyone deny that?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Matthew 4:4 View Post
I also found at Genesis 17:16 that God made a promise to Sarah.
Promise to Sarah was to give her son. The promise was fulfilled when Isaac was born.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Matthew 4:4 View Post
At Genesis 17:19 the everlasting covenant is made with: Isaac.
What covenant? Can you describe what covenant was to be established with Isaac and HIS descendants that hadn't been already established with Abraham and Ishmael even before Isaac was born?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Matthew 4:4 View Post
God's covenant would be with Isaac according to Genesis 17:21 through Sarah.
You need to study your scriptures much deeper than that. There isn't just one imagined covenant made with Isaac only or his descendants only. The covenant that is the mother of all covenants was made with Abraham and signed and sealed with blood of both Abraham and his seed (zera) Ishmael even before Isaac was born.

Keep in mind that several covenants have been made with the descendants of Isaac.
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Old 06-28-2017, 02:50 AM
 
3,167 posts, read 1,042,053 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Pruzhany View Post
Slight error translating Arabic into English.. Muslim and Musliman have the same root but not the same usages. مسلم is not the same as مسلمً.
Could you please quote a verse from the Qur'aan with the Arabic word from which English word "Muslim" is translated?
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Old 06-28-2017, 04:19 AM
 
Location: Eretz Yisrael
21,376 posts, read 24,137,102 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Khalif View Post
Could you please quote a verse from the Qur'aan with the Arabic word from which English word "Muslim" is translated?
My Quran is in Arabic. So no I'm not going to re-read it for you yo look for specific contexts. If you haven't noticed I don't quote scriptures from books and the ones in their native tongues are kept in their native tongues. Thus Quran is in Arabic, Tanakh is in Hebrew, NT is in Greek. Unlike you, English is not my first language even though I am currently in the US.

But since Google is my friend here is a link:

Compared Translations of the meaning of the Quran - 3:67
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Old 06-28-2017, 06:51 AM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Pruzhany View Post
My Quran is in Arabic. So no I'm not going to re-read it for you yo look for specific contexts.
If you claim in this forum that the English word "Muslim" (singular) is مسلم in Arabic and not مسلمً (musliman) then you have to prove your point from the Qur'aan or else you make no such claim here.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Pruzhany View Post
Unlike you, English is not my first language even though I am currently in the US.
English is not my first language either. Even Arabic is not my first language but I can read the Arabic Qur'aan and understand the difference between the Arabic words "مُسْلِمًا", "مُسْلِمِينَ" and "مُسْلِمُونَ".

Please note that the identification "Muslim" and "Muslims" is often misunderstood. None is dependent on genealogy for identification but entirely on action. Thus someone is known as "Muslim" ("مُسْلِمًا" in Arabic) because of his action of submitting to Allah.
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Old 06-28-2017, 07:44 AM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by AlwaysByChance View Post
I've read that many Muslim scholars believe the Jewish and Christian scriptures to be corrupted. Where does this come from?
From the Quran and also :

Jeremiah 8.8


How can you say, “We are wise,
for we have the law of the Lord,”
when actually the lying pen of the scribeshas handled it falsely?

Isahia 59.1

Surely the arm of the Lord is not too short to save,
nor his ear too dull to hear.
2 But your iniquities have separated
you from your God;
your sins have hidden his face from you,
so that he will not hear.
3 For your hands are stained with blood,
your fingers with guilt.
Your lips have spoken falsely,
and your tongue mutters wicked things.

Quote:
Originally Posted by AlwaysByChance View Post
Some of the Jewish and Christian scriptures have grammatical errors in various translations;Example the Book of Enoch. But, for the most part they are near perfect in the message conveyed.
I agree the message was conveyed.
Allah said those are Holy Books and to those who believe in them, they should follow the commands in them.

5.44 Indeed, We sent down the Torah, in which was guidance and light. The prophets who submitted [to Allah] judged by it for the Jews, as did the rabbis and scholars by that with which they were entrusted of the Scripture of Allah, and they were witnesses thereto. (...) And whoever does not judge by what Allah has revealed – then it is those who are the disbelievers.

5.47 And let the People of the Gospel judge by what Allah has revealed therein. And whoever does not judge by what Allah has revealed – then it is those who are the defiantly disobedient.

5.48 To each of you We prescribed a law and a method. Had Allah willed, He would have made you one nation [united in religion], but [He intended] to test you in what He has given you; so race to [all that is] good. To Allah is your return all together, and He will [then] inform you concerning that over which you used to differ.


Here it concerns only Islam, Judaism and Christianity as "law and method".


Quote:
Originally Posted by AlwaysByChance View Post
Are the stories of Jesus death and resurrection in the Christian bible considered false in Islam? What about the Jewish Prophets Isaiah, Jeremiah, Baruch, Ezekiel, Daniel, Hosea, Joel, Amos, Obadiah, Jonah, Micah, Nahum, Habakkuk, Zephaniah, Haggai, Zachariah, Malachi? Are they false Prophets?
The prophets in color are quoted in the Quran and the others no.
Ezekiel : Dhul Kifl in arabic, Jonah : Younes in arabic

Not knowing all the biblical prophets doesn't mean they are false prophets, God said many prophets were sent especially to jews. We just don't know them all.

Muslims respect the apostles of Jesus but we don't believe in the death of Jesus. It was said in the Quran that people thought he was crucified.
So i guess that what the apostles thought. But i think in the Gospel it says that non of the apostles were present when Jesus was in the cross. Only here mother was standing not far (right ?, tell me if i'm wrong)


Quote:
Originally Posted by AlwaysByChance View Post
What about Paul? Do Muslims consider Paul a false messenger? Paul claims to have met Jesus.
Paul is not among the apostles for us.
He claims he saw Jesus, but only in a dream right ?
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Old 12-16-2017, 03:53 PM
 
226 posts, read 123,792 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Pruzhany View Post
Deny it? The Quran includes many parts of it by rewording it. The Quran also changes the names that so prominent figures are treated as previous prophets.
Deny it in the sense of denying its authority in the way that a Christian or Jew would see it. That's a different thing to what you are talking about here.
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