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-Mohammad (pbuh) had no reason to come up with something like
Quran, and cause the entire society of Arabia to become his
enemy. Why would he do something like that?Why would he write
something going against almost all of the norms of the society, and lose his family, relatives, friends, and other loved ones ,
and not to mention all the wealth he lost ?
-Quran was revealed over a period of 23 years ! A very long
time! Is it possible for someone to maintain the same exact
style of Arabic speech , as demonstrated in Quran, for over 23
years ?
-Also, what the prophet Mohammad (saaw) used to say is recorded
in what we call his hadeeth (sunnah). If we look at the Arabic
style of the hadeeth, and compare it with the style of Quran, we
can clearly see that they are clearly DIFFERENT, and
DISTINGUISHABLE Arabic styles. The prophet (saaw) spoke in
public. It does not make sense that a man has two UNIQUE,
Distinguishable, and completely different styles of speech in
public.
Yet another reasons why Mohammad (saaw) couldn't
possibly have written Quran.
-With the man of reason, we proceed. "That this Arab, in the
first instance, was addressing other Arabs. He was not talking
to Indian Muslims, Chinese Muslims, or Nigerian Muslims. He was
addressing his own people - the Arabs. Whether they agreed with
him or not, he told them in the most sublime form - words that
were seared into the hearts and minds of his listeners that Mary
the mother of Jesus -A JEWESS- was chosen above the women of all
nations. Not his own mother, nor his wife nor his daughter, nor
any other Arab woman, but a Jewess! Can one explain this?
Because to everyone his own mother or wife, or daughter would
come before other women.
-The Jews get their ****-eyed racism from their Holy Bible, where
they are told their father, Abraham, had two wives -Sarah and
Hagar. They say that they are the children of Abraham through
Sarah, his legitimate wife; that their Arab brethren have
descended through Hagar, a "bondwoman", and that as such, the
Arabs are inferior breed.
Will anyone please explain the anomaly as to why Muhammed (pbuh)
(if he is the author) chose this Jewess for such honour? The
answer is simple - HE HAD NO CHOICE - he had no right to speak
of his own desire. "IT IS NO LESS THAN AN INSPIRATION SENT DOWN
TO HIM." (Qur'an, 53:4).
-Mohammad (pbuh) had no reason to come up with something like
Quran, and cause the entire society of Arabia to become his
enemy. Why would he do something like that?Why would he write
something going against almost all of the norms of the society, and lose his family, relatives, friends, and other loved ones ,
and not to mention all the wealth he lost ?
-Quran was revealed over a period of 23 years ! A very long
time! Is it possible for someone to maintain the same exact
style of Arabic speech , as demonstrated in Quran, for over 23
years ?
-Also, what the prophet Mohammad (saaw) used to say is recorded
in what we call his hadeeth (sunnah). If we look at the Arabic
style of the hadeeth, and compare it with the style of Quran, we
can clearly see that they are clearly DIFFERENT, and
DISTINGUISHABLE Arabic styles. The prophet (saaw) spoke in
public. It does not make sense that a man has two UNIQUE,
Distinguishable, and completely different styles of speech in
public.
Yet another reasons why Mohammad (saaw) couldn't
possibly have written Quran.
-With the man of reason, we proceed. "That this Arab, in the
first instance, was addressing other Arabs. He was not talking
to Indian Muslims, Chinese Muslims, or Nigerian Muslims. He was
addressing his own people - the Arabs. Whether they agreed with
him or not, he told them in the most sublime form - words that
were seared into the hearts and minds of his listeners that Mary
the mother of Jesus -A JEWESS- was chosen above the women of all
nations. Not his own mother, nor his wife nor his daughter, nor
any other Arab woman, but a Jewess! Can one explain this?
Because to everyone his own mother or wife, or daughter would
come before other women.
-The Jews get their ****-eyed racism from their Holy Bible, where
they are told their father, Abraham, had two wives -Sarah and
Hagar. They say that they are the children of Abraham through
Sarah, his legitimate wife; that their Arab brethren have
descended through Hagar, a "bondwoman", and that as such, the
Arabs are inferior breed.
Will anyone please explain the anomaly as to why Muhammed (pbuh)
(if he is the author) chose this Jewess for such honour? The
answer is simple - HE HAD NO CHOICE - he had no right to speak
of his own desire. "IT IS NO LESS THAN AN INSPIRATION SENT DOWN
TO HIM." (Qur'an, 53:4).
You do realize that these are almost the exact same arguments that people often give for the validity of the Bible, right?
Why would the followers of Jesus been willing to die if the miracles were not true?
The Bible was revealed over the course of many years.
The same translations of original languages...
It's the same exact arguments used for a different holy book.
My suggestion... I think that Judaism, Islam, and Christianity need to do some serious note-taking about one anothers religions and realize just how similar they are. It would probably be even better if you could merge the three and call it something like Judachrislam. Half of the world's problems would be solved by that alone.
You do realize that these are almost the exact same arguments that people often give for the validity of the Bible, right?
Why would the followers of Jesus been willing to die if the miracles were not true?
The Bible was revealed over the course of many years.
The same translations of original languages...
It's the same exact arguments used for a different holy book.
My suggestion... I think that Judaism, Islam, and Christianity need to do some serious note-taking about one anothers religions and realize just how similar they are. It would probably be even better if you could merge the three and call it something like Judachrislam. Half of the world's problems would be solved by that alone.
Or just ask which one of the three came first and why the stories of the second two just "happen" to sound like what came first. I love how much of Islam is made up from Jewish texts just with some name changes. Big surprise! And much of Christianity is backward-proof reasoning. The forefathers of the church knew what Judaism had to say abotu the messiah, so they wrote their stories to fit.
Or just ask which one of the three came first and why the stories of the second two just "happen" to sound like what came first. I love how much of Islam is made up from Jewish texts just with some name changes. Big surprise! And much of Christianity is backward-proof reasoning. The forefathers of the church knew what Judaism had to say abotu the messiah, so they wrote their stories to fit.
muslims follow the relegion of abraham (pbuh)
did abraham worshipped jesus or believed in trinity ! i don't think so
-Mohammad (pbuh) had no reason to come up with something like
Quran, and cause the entire society of Arabia to become his
enemy. Why would he do something like that?Why would he write
something going against almost all of the norms of the society, and lose his family, relatives, friends, and other loved ones ,
and not to mention all the wealth he lost ?
Every person who ever started a religion made statements going against the norms of society. In modern times, Joseph Smith is a prime example. How else to get a following and amass power to oneself? And amazingly enough, that is exactly what Mohammed did - got a following and fought war after war until he ruled quite an empire. Nothing like religious fervor to motivate warriors to murder and mayhem.
-
Quote:
Is it possible for someone to maintain the same exact
style of Arabic speech , as demonstrated in Quran, for over 23
years ?
Umm, yes. Most writers have a consistent style.
Quote:
It does not make sense that a man has two UNIQUE,
Distinguishable, and completely different styles of speech in
public.
Well, yes it does. Most people sound quite different in writing than in speaking and different still when engaged in casual speech with friends or family.
Quote:
Will anyone please explain the anomaly as to why Muhammed (pbuh) (if he is the author) chose this Jewess for such honour?
Since the Q'uran (Koran) is very similar to the Jewish bible and the author wished to supersede the newer and then more populous Christian religion in the Arab and Near East lands based upon the Jewish religion, why not? Who deifies their own near relatives? If you are trying to start a new religion, you would get laughed at to claim your own wife was the mother of all mothers. Nope, makes more sense to borrow one from the near copy.
The fact is that the early muslims were so similar in practice to Judiasm that the Jews in Arabia just thought of them as another Jewish sect. I'm just going to ignore the obvious race baiting comment. Pot - kettle?
And yeah, been done before, it's the same disingenous circular logic to claim it is more than it is.
no , we consider adam (pbuh) the first muslim
abraham relegion is pure and clear , all the prophets after him followed his relegion , to worshipps one God without associating any images or any other Gods with him
2-135 - They say: become Jews or Christians if ye would be guided (to salvation). say thou (O'mohammed to them): nay! (i would rather) the religion of Abraham the true, and he joined not gods with God.
3-67 - Abraham was not a Jew nor yet a Christian; but he was true in faith, and bowed his will to God's, (which is Islam), and he joined not gods with God.
6-161 - Say(o'mahammed): verily, my lord hath guided me to a way that is straight, a religion of right, the path (trod) by Abraham the true in faith, and he (certainly) joined not gods with God.
16-123 - So we have taught thee the inspired (message), follow the ways of Abraham the true in faith, and he joined not gods with God.
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