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There are over 50 different English Bible translations. I know the KJV is most accurate, BUT, sometimes I wonder just how "accurate" it could be. I have a Strong's Exhaustive Concordance, which has been a huge help, but sometimes one word could mean SO MANY THINGS! I wanted to start a thread IN HOPES of getting a better perspective on translations. I would love for someone who knows how to read/translate in Hebrew and Greek. I know definitions of a word could have been a little different back then too. Any help, advice and translations would be greatly appreciated!
To start off, I have two scriptures in which I have questions about.
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
I'm under the assumption that "Word" is God's self expression. But a concordance says it's pretty much a literal meaning, a form of speech. Also, does this "Word" translate the same as it would in John 1:14?
And the Word was made flesh
Rev 12:14 And I said unto him, Sir, thou knowest. And he said to me, These are they which came out of great tribulation, and have washed their robes, and made them white in the blood of the Lamb.
What is the meaning/correct translation of "came out"? My assumption is, this includes EVERYONE, both dead and alive, from the earth.
In order to understand you're request you need to read the Greek version and understand what they meant by the word Logos. Logos is meant to be read as a oral expression in the form of a short paragraph. Thus the expression of the paragraph became well known.
There are over 50 different English Bible translations. I know the KJV is most accurate, BUT, sometimes I wonder just how "accurate" it could be. I have a Strong's Exhaustive Concordance, which has been a huge help, but sometimes one word could mean SO MANY THINGS! I wanted to start a thread IN HOPES of getting a better perspective on translations. I would love for someone who knows how to read/translate in Hebrew and Greek. I know definitions of a word could have been a little different back then too. Any help, advice and translations would be greatly appreciated!
KJV is the least accurate especially since you are dealing with the 6th edition which had books removed from the Bible and gender of certain characters changed from women to men. So instead of the passage referring to a woman in the first edition by the time of the sixth it now said the person was a man.
Also the first edition had things like notes on possible alternate translation of certain passages and that the editors viewed them as Bible corrector's. Strong's is not accurate either since it is made to fit a certain strain of Christian propaganda rather be factual and accurate in translation.
A word of advice if you see virgin instead of say young woman then you aren't dealing with an accurate translation ethic at work.
See English has number of language problems. Take for example. There is no plural for you. Korine Greek had distinct words for plural and singular you however when translated into English these words were just rendered into you so you had no clue if a bit of text is addressing a single person or a few people, or a whole crowd whereas a Greek reading person could understand how many people were being addressed.
Did he really come to a Jewish forum and ask for help with his Chrstian bible?
Since you are all knowing, then translate (I left some of words used in hebrew/aramaic) and explain it from TOJ point of view.
Here they are:
Yochanan 1:1
Beresheet was the Dvar Hashem , and the Dvar Hashem was agav Hashem, and the Dvar Hashem was nothing less, by nature, than Elohim!
Yochanan 1:14
And the Dvar Hashem took on gufaniyut and made his sukkah, his Mishkan among us , and we gazed upon his Kavod , the Shechinah of the Ben Yachid from Elohim HaAv, full of Hashem’s Chesed v’Emes.
Hisgalus 7:14
And I said to him, Adonai, you have da’as. And he said to me, These are the ones coming out of HaTzarah HaGedolah and each washed his kittel and whitened it in the blood of the lamb.
Why on earth would you be posting Christian verses in the Jewish forum?
The Christian Bible was written in Greek, not Hebrew.
In my original post, you will notice I said Hebrew and Greek. I do have questions in regards to the OT and NT. It just so happens the two translations that have been bugging me to death are the ones I listed from the NT.
I did NOT mean to step on any toes. On the Christian forum I get a million and one different answers to things and no one seems to have the right answer. Also, "Jewish" people have commented in the Christian forum as well. I meant no disrespect in my thread. From what I've observed, the best way to get a good and accurate translation is to ask someone of the Jewish faith (I don't know how to word that??). They have a better view AND many of them know how to read Hebrew or Greek. I guess my assumption in people being friendly was inaccurate? I would never question a "Jew" if they posted in the Christian forum. I am no respecter of persons. Everyone deserves the same amount of respect and kindness. I don't think I have said and/or have done anything to offend anyone. I would consider it a complement. How often do you have a "Christian" asking your advice about something???
Quote:
Originally Posted by d from birmingham
KJV is the least accurate especially since you are dealing with the 6th edition which had books removed from the Bible and gender of certain characters changed from women to men. So instead of the passage referring to a woman in the first edition by the time of the sixth it now said the person was a man.
Also the first edition had things like notes on possible alternate translation of certain passages and that the editors viewed them as Bible corrector's. Strong's is not accurate either since it is made to fit a certain strain of Christian propaganda rather be factual and accurate in translation.
A word of advice if you see virgin instead of say young woman then you aren't dealing with an accurate translation ethic at work.
See English has number of language problems. Take for example. There is no plural for you. Korine Greek had distinct words for plural and singular you however when translated into English these words were just rendered into you so you had no clue if a bit of text is addressing a single person or a few people, or a whole crowd whereas a Greek reading person could understand how many people were being addressed.
This is rather interesting. So, which verse are you referring to when you said a woman was translated into a man?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Pruzhany
In order to understand you're request you need to read the Greek version and understand what they meant by the word Logos. Logos is meant to be read as a oral expression in the form of a short paragraph. Thus the expression of the paragraph became well known.
They see us as experts of the entire book. It's a compliment, really.
YES!!! Thank you! We may believe differently and have different views, but I value the insight. Especially since I can't read Hebrew or Greek and I can't always rely on other translations.
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Thank you! We may believe differently and have different views, but I value the insight. Especially since I can't read Hebrew or Greek and I can't always rely on other translations.
