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If you are concerned about owner-occupied vs. investment property, your only worry should be with the lender -- after the fact. Legal responsiblity to declare ownership/occupancy is yours at the time of signing -- after that time, there is normally a time-frame for the owner to keep/continue occupancy, and many lenders religiously monitor their borrowers' practices to confirm occupancy.
Since no declaration has been made by the originator of this thread that he surruptiously contracted his mortgage/s as an owner/occupier with full intention to rent/lease those properties, we cannot assume that that was his practice. In the future, however, his investment properties will be considered as such, and there will be a limit to his LTV and his rate will be higher than a comparable primary residence contract. Still, that is the future.
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