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Old 07-15-2011, 12:26 PM
 
Location: Sierra Nevada Land, CA
9,455 posts, read 12,545,216 times
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I say they do.

If you disagree, then why?

This post inspiried me to post up this thread
http://www.city-data.com/forum/19948089-post4.html
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Old 07-15-2011, 12:40 PM
 
Location: Dallas, TX
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Provide an example, or two, that demonstrate not subjective but objective nature of "morals".
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Old 07-15-2011, 12:45 PM
 
Location: East Lansing, MI
28,353 posts, read 16,379,218 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by EinsteinsGhost View Post
Provide an example, or two, that demonstrate not subjective but objective nature of "morals".

This, please.
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Old 07-15-2011, 01:00 PM
 
Location: Victoria, BC.
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I say they don't.
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Old 07-15-2011, 01:28 PM
 
Location: Metromess
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"Objective Moral Values" are codes of behavior which help a society to exist and prosper.
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Old 07-15-2011, 01:40 PM
 
2,031 posts, read 2,987,934 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mr5150 View Post
I say they do.

If you disagree, then why?

This post inspiried me to post up this thread
http://www.city-data.com/forum/19948089-post4.html
No.

Useful rules exist.

Rules such as
* killing other people is not useful
* taking someone else's food against their will is not useful

Useful rules generally have a few useful exceptions, such as
* killing other people is not useful, except when they are threatening to imminently kill or cause bodily harm to you or another

Naturally, we can all quibble on the precise nature of these useful rules -- which variations are more useful than others, as well as the usefulness of the various exceptions. I picked a few examples that are widely accepted as useful.

There are also rules which are not very useful, such as
* anyone who eats shellfish must immediately be stoned to death
* you must slit the throat of a virgin sheep at dawn three days after the summer solstice

It shouldn't be necessary to explain why these rules are not useful.

Rules. Some are useful. Others aren't.
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Old 07-15-2011, 01:45 PM
 
Location: Sierra Nevada Land, CA
9,455 posts, read 12,545,216 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by EinsteinsGhost View Post
Provide an example, or two, that demonstrate not subjective but objective nature of "morals".
How about: when is it Not morally wrong to sexually abuse a five year old child.

I don't see this as subjective.
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Old 07-15-2011, 01:57 PM
 
Location: Golden, CO
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"There is nothing either good or bad, but thinking makes it so."
-- William Shakespeare (Hamlet)

Before I begin, I want to make it clear what I am not saying. I am not saying morality or good and bad do not exist. I am saying that they only exist as subjective constructs. I am not suggesting that if no objective morality exists, that we should then allow anyone to do what they want. The question of “what do we do now?” is separate from “does objective morality exist?” I am only treating the latter question in this post. I do have a moral system that in many ways is likely to be very similar to yours.

What does objective mean? Objective means not influenced by personal feelings, interpretations, or prejudice; based on facts; unbiased. It is contrasted with the adjective subjective. Subjective means proceeding from or taking place in a person's mind rather than the external world; or existing in the mind; belonging to the thinking subject rather than to the object of thought.

What is morality? Morality is concern with the distinction between good and evil or right and wrong; right or good conduct.

If you disagree with any of my definitions, let’s discuss that first before we move on. If we are on the same page so far, I am going to tackle this question from a couple of different angles: the necessity of an observer and relativity.

Necessity of an Observer

One possible phrasing of the topic in question is, “Does the distinction between good and evil exist in the external world or only in the human mind?” It is my contention that it takes an observer to make a judgment to make something good or bad.

Let’s try a thought experiment. If a behavior is engaged in, and no one ever judges it, does its badness exist? The behavior may result in pain or death, but if no one ever evaluates it (including you as you imagine it), does it have a badness characteristic? A behavior can only gain a badness quality if an evaluator gives it one. It is not a physical quality; it cannot be measured with an instrument. Badness only resides in the eye of the beholder; it does not exist independent of an observer. That makes it subjective by definition. Remember subjective means proceeding from or taking place in a person's mind rather than the external world.

Now, some believe that there is an objective, external morality that is established by God. But, we are faced again with the fact that now God is the evaluator. The badness of the behavior exists in the mind of God, not in the external world. God’s opinion of what is moral does not establish an objective morality, as not all accept the idea that he has the final word on declaring something good or evil. If God does exist, I do not accept his morality as an objective standard. He is simply one being, one evaluator of behavior, as am I. If he exists and is all-powerful, he may enforce consequences upon me for my behavior, but that does not make the behaviors objectively good or evil. He is not the final say of good and evil unless we make him so for ourselves. Every person creates good and evil for themselves in their own minds. Consequences exist whether someone believes in them or not, but only a person or god can create good and evil, for good and evil are nothing more than evaluations. And evaluations are not properties of a behavior as they cannot exist outside of an evaluator.

Other people may believe that behaviors have a goodness or badness quality, independent of any observer’s evaluation. They claim that the universe bestows this quality on behaviors. But, what does that mean? Consequences can follow behaviors as in karma, but that is a cause and effect relationship or a conditional reward type situation. It does not mean that a behavior is “good” or “bad”.

Now that I have shown that the distinction between good and evil exists only in the mind, I believe I have demonstrated that there can be no objective morality.

Relative Morality

Another way to phrase the topic in question is, “Although morality may exist only in the mind, can we humans through logic and reason identify morals that are not ‘particular to the individual,’ but are universal and ‘uninfluenced by emotions or personal prejudices’ and in that sense be objective?” Let’s take a look at that.

Logic and reason are operators; they need something to work on. The kind of moral system you end up with depends on what you subjectively choose to start with. Deductive reasoning requires you to subjectively choose some premise to start with, such as “whatever promotes life is good,” and then deduce moral behaviors that are consistent with that premise. Now, one can evaluate the system that was derived from the premise on the basis of consistency, soundness, and completeness, but one cannot objectively evaluate the premise itself. The problem is that there are nearly an infinite number of premises from which to start and no objective way to determine which premise is best. This is because the only way to judge a premise is with another premise. I imagine much of the discussion to follow will revolve around demonstrating this is true in several specific cases.

Allow me to demonstrate with just one specific case. Suppose an individual started with the premise that “might makes right” and thereby justifies genocide. Now there are many ways in which you can challenge this premise using your own subjective standards: reciprocity, beneficence, non-malevalance, sustainability, utility, etc. This individual may not share those values or think your criticisms are relevant. Is there a way to demonstrate that those values MUST be part of any valid moral system? What many people believe are essential elements of a moral system are not in actuality. It is usually because they cannot see their own subjective assumptions. It takes patience to identify these. How are you going to challenge the premise that “might makes right” objectively, without simply using another premise that they could validly deem irrelevant?

Example:
Joe: “Might makes right”.
Sue: “But, how are you going to feel if someone stronger than you kills you?” (This is using the premise that if you wouldn’t like the behaviors justified by your moral system committed against you then your moral system is inferior).
Joe: “I would not like it, but that would not make the behavior wrong. If they are stronger, they are right. Their behavior is consistent with my moral system; therefore it is good.”
Sue: “But, if you would not like it, then it is bad. And it would cause other people to suffer and that is bad.”
Joe: “Why? Might makes right. It doesn’t matter whether I or anyone else likes it or suffers.”
Sue: “A moral system must take into account human suffering; else you cannot call it moral.”
Joe: “No it doesn’t. That is your own prejudice talking. Morality is defined as a system to identify good behavior from bad behavior. Where in there do you see a stipulation to consider human suffering?”
Sue: “But that thinking could lead to the destruction of all mankind.”
Joe: “Destruction is part of life. Evolution by natural selection, survival of the fittest, it results in the hardiest organisms, and that is a good thing.”
Sue: “How can you say that?”
Joe: “I just have a different moral system than you. I value different things.”

As you can see the appeals to the values of reciprocity, human suffering, and sustainability had no result. There is no objective reason why Joe must agree to evaluate his moral system by Sue’s values. Two people must share a set of subjective values before they can agree on where one moral system is better than another. Nothing requires us to predicate our moral system on any particular value. That is what ensures that there is no objective morality.

Other people might contend that we can know what is good or bad by looking at what people agree are good or bad. Consensus of opinion is not proof of objective good and evil for it could just be opinion, and opinion is by its very nature subjective. For example, before Copernicus, there was consensus that the sun and planets revolved around the earth, but that did not make it objective reality. I think we should pay attention to areas of consensus when formulating our subjective moralities.

Nothing requires that we must define what is good based on the opinion of the majority. I could have a moral system based on “might makes right.” You could disagree with my moral system, but there is absolutely no way to objectively show me that I am wrong. The same goes for every moral system. The only way to criticize their premises is to use other premises for which there is no objective reason why others must acknowledge that those premises are the standard by which all moral systems may be objectively judged and compared. One can always subjectively judge, using one’s own preferred premises. There is no way to objectively determine which morality is best; therefore, there is no objective morality.

Some may acknowledge that there is no objective way to identify which moral premises are best through logic, but they contend that all people will find the same morality by listening to our consciences. If we consider whether something is good or bad, we will get a feeling about it. In order for this method to be objective, we all would need to get the same answer. One counterexample can demonstrate that this is not an objective method. When I was a true believing Mormon, my conscience was trained to give me a bad feeling about drinking alcohol. Now, as a non-believer, my conscience gives me no signal that drinking alcohol is wrong.

Other people may believe an objective morality may be found in the Bible. This is an appeal to authority. First, the Bible does not present a consistent moral system, but even if it did, it is only subjective opinion for one to consider the Bible as the standard by which to judge all conduct.

We may be able to objectively identify which behaviors lead to mistrust, or suffering, or hardship. But, we cannot objectively identify which behaviors are good, because goodness is an evaluation that is based on one’s personal premises.
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Old 07-15-2011, 02:00 PM
 
9,408 posts, read 13,738,548 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mr5150 View Post
How about: when is it Not morally wrong to sexually abuse a five year old child.

I don't see this as subjective.
[SIZE=2]'The Islamic source materials state that Muhammad proposed marriage to Aisha when she was 6. He assumed her silence constituted her consent. Some 2 to 3 years later, just after he had fled to Medina, he consummated his marriage with her. He was 52 and she was 9. This occurred prior to Aisha’s first menses and by Islam’s legal definition Aisha was still considered a child. Islam teaches that a child enters adulthood at the beginning of puberty. (This is scientifically inaccurate, the onset of puberty does not equal adulthood – see Appendix 3).[/SIZE]'

Muhammad, Aisha, Islam, and Child Brides

'No Virgins over 10!: The Ila people of Africa encourage their children to fully develop their sexual capabilities, permitting them any form of sexual expression they wish to partake in. It is claimed there are no virgins older than age 10 in this society!'

Sex life: 15 surprising factoids about sex in different cultures (plus a video!) | ParentsAsk

Sex between children and adults was condoned and often encouraged by Polynesians and other cultures, especially matriarchal societies.

You will find throughout history there are many things tolerated that we as a modern society find repulsive and abnormal.

That is one of the reasons why you will not find too many proponents of objective morality, because it depends on the time, the culture, the setting and the mores and norms of the society.

Murder is condoned in some parts of the world, incest is considered normal in some tribes, the list is endless really.
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Old 07-15-2011, 02:05 PM
 
12,595 posts, read 6,650,323 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mr5150 View Post
I say they do.

If you disagree, then why?

This post inspiried me to post up this thread
http://www.city-data.com/forum/19948089-post4.html
"Objective Morality" is kind of a "sticky wicket".

I've presented this a couple times before...and again, it is applicable here:
Who's/what "moral compass" do we go by to determine what is to be the "objective basis" for a "moral code"?--Your's, mine, the US laws in 2010, the US laws in 1710, the Middle East in 2010, Rome in 2010, Rome 2000 yrs ago, the penal code of any random country of choosing, what Hitler thought was moral, what Gandhi thought was moral...how about Gen Custer, how about Sitting Bull, how about my/your/whoevers' Grandmother, etc, etc, etc?

Since what man considers "moral" varies so much from person to person, place to place, culture to culture, time to time, and situation to situation...using any secular moral code cannot possibly ever be purely "logical and/or reasonable".

What "objective basis" does anybody have for determining morality? I submit...it must be concluded that they don't. It can't ever be anything BUT subjective!
ALL simply use "FAITH" that what they "BELIEVE" is morally good...actually IS. If you asked someone else they might say something you think is "good"...is "bad".
See...determination of "What is Good VS What is Bad" and "What is Right VS What is Wrong" ALWAYS rests entirely on FAITH!! The "Scientific Method" isn't at all applicable in that department.

This is why the "religious" turn to their theology for their "moral code". That way...a "believed in Higher Power" sets the standard...not man...so they "reason" through their "faith".

Sooooooo....Keep the FAITH!! It's REALLY all ANY of us have got to live by---Even the Atheists!!
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