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It simply shows that changing the definition of marriage means changing a thousand years old tradition. It also shows gay marriage has no roots in European culture.
Just like marrying for love has no roots in European culture until modern times?
It simply shows that changing the definition of marriage means changing a thousand years old tradition. It also shows gay marriage has no roots in European culture. Its a foreign concept.
Huh? Civil marriage in the US is not a thousand year old tradition. Plus every time we've made a change to civil marriage law, we're changed the definition of civil marriage. Go back a few decades ago, and in most of the US civil marriage was defined as a contract between two people of the same race.
Huh? Civil marriage in the US is not a thousand year old tradition. Plus every time we've made a change to civil marriage law, we're changed the definition of civil marriage. Go back a few decades ago, and in most of the US civil marriage was defined as a contract between two people of the same race.
USA is in a way an extension of European tradition and in that tradition the institution of marriage and its definition remained unchanged until pretty much today. No significant changes since Biblical times.
No. It has but it was a priviledge of the rich. You guys trained in American colleges have no clue about history
I was trained in two universities in Europe in addition to the US, thank you very much.
The rich tended to have less privilege to marry for love - marriage up until the last century was a way for elites to keep their money, land, and power strategically consolidated. Of course there was an occasional romance, but that was what affairs were really for. In fact, the poor might have more leeway in who they married because they had less assets to keep in the family and were unlikely to gain a title.
USA is in a way an extension of European tradition and in that tradition the institution of marriage and its definition remained unchanged until pretty much today.
Um, civil marriage and "traditional" or religious marriages are separate, unrelated things.
You're welcome to your own particular definitions of traditional marriage in your private, family (or cultural) sphere, but please keep that out of our civil, secular law.
(and traditional "European" marriages have not remained pretty much unchanged - it's been a constant evolution that often times looked very different depending on where exactly you happened to be)
I was trained in two universities in Europe in addition to the US, thank you very much.
The rich tended to have less privilege to marry for love - marriage up until the last century was a way for elites to keep their money, land, and power strategically consolidated. Of course there was an occasional romance, but that was what affairs were really for. In fact, the poor might have more leeway in who they married because they had less assets to keep in the family and were unlikely to gain a title.
No. The poor HAD to marry for financial reasons. It was a matter of survival for them. Single women were hopeless.
Only the rich who did not have to worry about money, could marry for other reasons. The poor could not even afford romance as their main worry was to survive.
You went to school in Europe and know so little about history?
How come?
Um, civil marriage and "traditional" or religious marriages are separate, unrelated things.
You're welcome to your own particular definitions of traditional marriage in your private, family (or cultural) sphere, but please keep that out of our civil, secular law.
The last time I checked our civil, secular law defines marriage as an union between man and a women. Has that changed?
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