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Only if you consider what your average Arab in the Levant or Mizrahi Jew looks like today to be lily white. There was no such thing as "white" in the ancient Mediterranean world, that concept didn't even exist yet.
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The pictographs seen in ancient Pharaohs Egypt, the Egyptians were not white by any means. Big eyes... Check. Big nose... Check. Big lips... Check. Dark skin... Check. Nope, not the pencil head, thin lipped, narrow eyed, white lily.
They were most likely similar to what Coptic Christian Egyptians look like today(who have the purest Egyptian bloodlines)--though most don't look that different from their Semitic neighbors.
Last edited by CanuckInPortland; 06-18-2015 at 12:33 PM..
Prior to that case, the slaves brought to America were merely considered "indentured servants" of some form, and their offspring were not considered slaves either.
Sigh...the link is an ongoing lie.
John Punch was the first black man who was enslaved for life in VA in 1640, thirty years prior to Anthony Johnson's case. John Punch's enslavement to his master (he was originally, like most blacks in America at this time, an indentured servant) set a precedence and associated slavery for life with black. This was the first incidence of such a case.
The Anthony Johnson thing, though true, is frequently touted by people, who want to deny the origins of race based slavery in this country. From Wikipedia:
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John Punch (fl. 1630s, living 1640) was an African slave who lived in the Colony of Virginia during the seventeenth century.[2][3] In July 1640, the Virginia Governor's Council sentenced him to serve for the remainder of his life as punishment for running away to Maryland. In contrast, two European men who ran away with him were sentenced to longer indentures but not the permanent loss of their freedom. For this reason, historians consider John Punch the "first official slave in the English colonies,"[4] and his case as the "first legal sanctioning of lifelong slavery in the Chesapeake."[2] Historians also consider this to be one of the first legal distinctions between Europeans and Africans made in the colony,[5] and his case a key milestone in the development of the institution of slavery in the United States.[6]
Only if you consider what your average Arab looks like today to be lily white. There was no such thing as "white" in the ancient Mediterranean world, that concept didn't even exist yet.
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Sure it did...it's just that they were too busy slitting people's throats and sticking them in swamps to bother with things like civilization. They made fine slaves, though.
John Punch was the first black man who was enslaved for life in VA in 1640, thirty years prior to Anthony Johnson's case. John Punch's enslavement to his master (he was originally, like most blacks in America at this time, an indentured servant) set a precedence and associated slavery for life with black. This was the first incidence of such a case.
The Anthony Johnson thing, though true, is frequently touted by people, who want to deny the origins of race based slavery in this country. From Wikipedia:
Well, we are splitting hairs. In your case, the courts punished a black man who ran away from his indenture, by extending his indenture for life.
Our 13th amendment for instance says, "Neither slavery nor involuntary servitude, except as a punishment for crime whereof the party shall have been duly convicted, shall exist within the United States, or any place subject to their jurisdiction."
Prison is effectively slavery, especially the old days of the chain gang. So slavery is perfectly legal, even to this very day, as long as it is court-ordered(we even used to have "debt prisons").
In the case I posted, the black man actually claimed that he personally had a perpetual right of ownership of another human-being which had nothing to do with the courts, and was thus something completely new.
I agree that your case might have set some precedents which ultimately led to race-based chattel slavery, but it did not establish the legal framework of chattel slavery. The case I linked was the actual beginning of the legal framework of chattel slavery in America. So I'm not wrong, and the link I posted was not a lie. Be careful with your words.
You know who actually put a stop to it? Americans. Western Europeans who immigrated to America stopped a practice that had been going on worldwide for THOUSANDS of years.
Europeans banned slave trade before Americans. Why do you think Lincoln declared the civil war was about slavery? Because he knew England was about to help the South, and that declaration made England look like they were supporting slavery when they had already abolished it in their own country.
The English considering the Irish a different race does not make it so. They are both caucasians.
I'm going to say this, race really is a "social construct". That doesn't mean it is irrelevant. It simply means that the definition of race could mean there are anywhere between only one race(IE the human race), to only three races(IE Caucasians, Asian, and Africans), or it can mean there are practically an unlimited number of races.
Polynesians are often identified as a separate race from other Asians. And so are the "aborigines" of Australia. So are the people from the "Indian subcontinent". And what about the Arabs and other Middle-Easterners? They aren't "White", though they are often classified as Caucasians.
In the past, many have broken down Europe into a variety of different races. With groups such as "Nordics", "Alpines", and "Mediterraneans" being often featured. But many others as well.
Many ended up just accepting language as the best approximation of race. On the basis that, language and ancestry tend to follow each other. Hitler's so-called "Aryan race" was built almost entirely off language. The Germanic language also includes English, Danish, Norwegian, Swedish, Dutch, and Flemish.
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