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Old 02-06-2017, 12:35 PM
 
Location: the very edge of the continent
89,008 posts, read 44,813,405 times
Reputation: 13704

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Quote:
Originally Posted by JGMotorsport64 View Post
What's the difference? You're splitting hairs in an attempt to feel right about something.
What's the difference? Location. Also known as jurisdiction.

Foreigners worldwide cannot sue the US for being denied the approval to immigrate.
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Old 02-06-2017, 12:35 PM
 
16,579 posts, read 20,707,497 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by InformedConsent View Post
Not while located outside the US and not yet permitted re-entry.
I believe that you're wrong about that, but as I said to lifexplorer, you should read the briefs and the cases they cite.
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Old 02-06-2017, 12:37 PM
 
Location: the very edge of the continent
89,008 posts, read 44,813,405 times
Reputation: 13704
Quote:
Originally Posted by lifeexplorer View Post
LPRs don't have the constitutional right to enter US. Please cite the law that says they do.
That. ^

They're foreign nationals. Period. They can be denied re-entry to the US after travel abroad. Period.
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Old 02-06-2017, 12:39 PM
 
Location: the very edge of the continent
89,008 posts, read 44,813,405 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Marlow View Post
I believe that you're wrong about that
I don't. LPRs are warned that they might not be able to re-enter the US if they travel abroad. LPRs are still foreign nationals.
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Old 02-06-2017, 12:41 PM
 
Location: Brackenwood
9,981 posts, read 5,679,721 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Domitian View Post
here's a good question - if a different circuit court had ruled on the case - say the 10th circuit court - would we have gotten a different outcome?
Maybe not -- I've read from a fairly knowledgeable source that a federal restraining order cannot be "undone" on an emergency basis like an injunction can. Unfortunately this source did not provide any kind of citation for the claim and I can't find anything to verify it without spending more time digging into it than I have at the moment.
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Old 02-06-2017, 12:44 PM
 
Location: LEAVING CD
22,974 posts, read 27,008,828 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by OnOurWayHome View Post
I love how everyone is suddenly a constitutional law scholar.
I know, ain't it grand? Heck Obama IS a Constitutional scholar and even he violated it from time to time (or frequently depending on your political bent)...
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Old 02-06-2017, 01:07 PM
 
8,081 posts, read 6,958,439 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by InformedConsent View Post
No. As everyone knows, there are foreigners legally present in the US as tourists, on student, work, etc., visas, and as Green Card holders. That statute enables them to use US Federal courts to litigate against US persons/entities, even though they are not US citizens.
Wrong where does it say that? It says citizens of foreign states suing citizens of the US give rise to jurisdiction in federal district court.

Did you also know foreign governments can sue you in federal court? It's under (d)(4).
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Old 02-06-2017, 01:13 PM
 
Location: the very edge of the continent
89,008 posts, read 44,813,405 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by JGMotorsport64 View Post
Wrong where does it say that? It says citizens of foreign states suing citizens of the US give rise to jurisdiction in federal district court.
Which US citizen is being sued?
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Old 02-06-2017, 01:16 PM
 
8,081 posts, read 6,958,439 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by InformedConsent View Post
Which US citizen is being sued?
You're mixing issues, I was providing an example to somebody of how foreign citizens actually can be subjected to our jurisdiction without physical presence.
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Old 02-06-2017, 01:22 PM
 
189 posts, read 110,731 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Redraven View Post
We are not discussing the Constitution. We are discussing the United States Code, specifically 8 USC 1182, which states (in part):

(f) Suspension of entry or imposition of restrictions by President Whenever the President finds that the entry of any aliens or of any class of aliens into the United States would be detrimental to the interests of the United States, he may by proclamation, and for such period as he shall deem necessary, suspend the entry of all aliens or any class of aliens as immigrants or nonimmigrants, or impose on the entry of aliens any restrictions he may deem to be appropriate. Whenever the Attorney General finds that a commercial airline has failed to comply with regulations of the Attorney General relating to requirements of airlines for the detection of fraudulent documents used by passengers traveling to the United States (including the training of personnel in such detection), the Attorney General may suspend the entry of some or all aliens transported to the United States by such airline.


It doesn't seem to require a Juris Doctor Degree to understand what that portion of the Code means. It seems very clear, written in plain English instead of legalese, and it has been on the books since 1952!
Anyone who disagrees with the clarity of the first sentence of that paragraph, please explain, in detail, exactly where your disagreement is.
There is also another law - USC 1152(1)(A), was added in 1965. It provides that “no person shall receive any preference or priority or be discriminated against in the issuance of an immigrant visa because of the person's race, sex, nationality, place of birth, or place of residence.”

An article in the Atlantic points out that the issue might hinge on whether the judges think that the law passed in 1965 modifies the 1952 law, which it would seem to, or whether they feel that the 1952 law modifies the 1965 law but it's hard to see how an earlier law could modify a later law in my opinion - but I'm not a legal scholar. Here is the article that discusses this

https://www.theatlantic.com/politics...m_source=atltw
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