Bible specifically says killing a fetus is not murder. (crime, abortion, status)
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Who care what the Bible says...its a bed time story thats been written like 11 times and one got picked...
So you make an ignorant attempt at cheery picking out of it and then revert to this attitude when proven wrong. You weren't looking for truth when you read that, you were seeking an "i gotcha!" position, but since you were so busy trying to prove yourself correct, your willingness to conform to your ignorance resulted in false understanding. By the way, your manipulation is nothing new, Satan did the same to Jesus when he took him out into the desert. He also failed miserably.
A fetus is a human being. I would suggest that you read the entire first chapter of Luke in the Bible and pay special attention to verses 41-45.
That is the problem with a lot of people today. They think educating themselves is finding support for their position, not seeing if evidence actually supports their position. The result is an ignorant public that never learns, never grows and continues to spiral into ignorance.
That is the problem with a lot of people today. They think educating themselves is finding support for their position, not seeing if evidence actually supports their position. The result is an ignorant public that never learns, never grows and continues to spiral into ignorance.
Explain why that is? You have failed to state your objection to me. Maybe you could provide a little insight to what it is you claim I am to learn in contrast to what you claim that I have stated incorrectly?
The argument runs something like this. If two men are fighting, and the struggle injures a pregnant woman (who perhaps intervenes in an attempt to stop the dispute), so that she miscarries, a monetary fine may be imposed to compensate for the death of the fetus. This infraction, however, was not viewed as a capital case. It is then contended that the implication must be that the fetus was not a human being with rights comparable to an adult person.
What, then, is the passage teaching? Simply this. If two fighting men injure a pregnant woman, causing her to give premature birth, yet no harm follows – to either mother or child – a fine will be levied as a penalty for such carelessness. However, if any harm followed, to mother or babe, justice was to be meted out commensurate with degree of damage. Both the mother and unborn child had equal protection under the law.
Agreed. I am just wondering why the OP left some of the particulars out of the discussion.
I don't know what bible you were using, but some key parts seem to have been left out, the following is from the king james version (the one that was written after columbus discovered america)
If men strive, and hurt a woman with child, so that her fruit (?fruit or fetus NOT child?)depart from her (?if the fetus aborts?) , and yet no mischief follow (?and she doesnt die?): he shall be surely punished, according as the woman's husband will lay upon him; and he shall pay as the judges determine. (?result:civil fine?) And if any mischief follow(?if she does die?), then thou shalt give life for life(?result:death penalty?),
Did not leave anything out. But I agree that if in the killing of the child there was mischief involved the perpetrator could loose his/her life. So he unborn was protected by scripture.
The passage quoted by Soccorsupporter comes from Young's Literal Translation, 1862.
Unlike the KJV, it is a strictly literal translation of the original Hebrew and Greek texts. Unlike other translations, it does not paraphrase or change tenses or articles.
The KJV was published in 1611. It contains a number of translation errors. I have pulled these from here:
What are the ERRORS in the King James Version Bible? - Part 1 of 2 (http://www.biblestudy.org/basicart/kjverror.html - broken link)
Genesis 1:2 should read "And the earth became without form . . . ." The word translated "was" is hayah, and denotes a condition different than a former condition, as in Genesis 19:26.
Luke 14:26 has the unfortunate translation of the Greek word miseo, Strong's #3404, as "hate", when it should be rendered "love less by comparison." We are not to hate our parents and family!
So you're saying that back in those days, if a woman's husband was getting the stuffing beat out of him, she would not interfere and try to help her husband?? Never, ever??
Yes I am.
The woman would have been badly beaten just for bringing dishonor to her husband or another man.
Here is another example from the Bible.
Deuteronomy 25:11: If two men are fighting, and the wife of one of them grabs the other man's testicles, her hand is to be chopped off. There is no penalty if a male relative were to grab the other man. "When men strive together one with another, and the wife of the one draweth near for to deliver her husband out of the hand of him that smiteth him, and putteth forth her hand, and taketh him by the secrets. Then thou shalt cut off her hand...
It is talking about the child, not the woman. That is, if a pregnat woman is hit and the child is aborted and yet no serious injury to the child exists, the the man is fined. If injury to the child exists, the man is held to that of "Eye for an Eye".
Read the above versus and think about all the listing of crimes to which it is speaking. If the child was of no concern, it would not need to be mentioned.
???? No serious injury to an aborted baby? How do you suppose an aborted fetus did during Moses time?
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