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Old 07-27-2019, 06:06 PM
 
Location: Upstate NY
35,826 posts, read 10,617,840 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Lodestar View Post
It's worse when people say ". . .to me and Bill." In keeping with our increasingly self-centered society today most everyone puts themselves first.

But that's bad grammar, not exactly the same thing as irritating speech habits.

No, it's not! Though "Bill" should come first in that example (for the reason to which you alluded), ...to me and Bill is not gramatically incorrect. "...to Bill and I" is.
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Old 07-27-2019, 06:21 PM
 
Location: Surfside Beach, SC
2,307 posts, read 2,697,944 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Delahanty View Post
No, it's not! Though "Bill" should come first in that example (for the reason to which you alluded), ...to me and Bill is not gramatically incorrect. "...to Bill and I" is.
Nope! Not in the example that was given. What is proper is to say, "She gave the weed to Bill and me." Eliminate Bill and you will see what I mean. You would never say, "She gave the weed to I." You would say, "She gave the weed to me."
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Old 07-27-2019, 06:27 PM
 
Location: Surfside Beach, SC
2,307 posts, read 2,697,944 times
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I had a friend who used to always say, "And what have you." He would say it multiple times during a sentence and it drove me crazy!

He would say things like this:

"We were driving down the street, and what have you, and then we stopped by a restaurant, and what have you, and we got some really good food, and what have you."

Drove me insane, but he died a year ago yesterday and I really miss him and what have you.
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Old 07-27-2019, 06:37 PM
 
Location: Wonderland
45,224 posts, read 36,432,107 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by socal_native View Post
this one is the killer: "she gave the weed to bill and i."
o. M. G!!!!!!!! :d
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Old 07-27-2019, 06:48 PM
 
Location: Wonderland
45,224 posts, read 36,432,107 times
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I believe that everyone uses some filler words.

However, I have to remark about the "y'know?" thing, because I used to be guilty of that till my husband pointed out that it is really insisting that someone respond. In the affirmative. As in"

"I am so upset, y'know?" What is the other person SUPPOSED to say? And yet, you are asking for them to engage. Well, really, you are insisting that they engage and preferably as in "agreeing with you." You are asking for validation.

I don't need validation. So I have consciously tried to get this out of my vocabulary. And y'know what? (LOL not quite the same thing, just had to throw that in there, BUT I DIGRESS!) Sometimes when I DON'T use that term, maybe the person I'm addressing isn't really listening to me, so they miss something. Oh well, that's on them. And see, I initially typed, "That's on them, right?" BECAUSE I WAS LOOKING FOR VALIDATION. Sheeze, I don't need it!

So instead of "I went to the store and saw something I really liked, y'know?" I now say, "I went to the store and saw something I liked." If there's silence, I say, "So I'm buying it." If there's still silence, then OK - I told him. So I'm buying it, because silence implies consent. But he may respond and then we will have a joint conversation. But I'm not insisting on the conversation (or the permission for that matter). I initiated the conversation - I don't HAVE to get his feedback. It's a courtesy, or well, an attempt at a mutual conversation (which, for the record, nearly always works anyway). But if he doesn't respond, oh well.

I realize as I type this that I'm making my husband sound like a jerk, and he is not one at all. It was my attempt at validation that was irritating, not the actual conversation. "Ya know?" "Right?" These are all subconscious attempts to force the other person to listen and interact.
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Old 07-27-2019, 07:55 PM
 
6,741 posts, read 3,791,154 times
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I don't think "I digress" is filler language. It means, "Well, I'm getting carried away here. Let me get back on point." It is legitimate and serves a purpose. Although it is a bit hoity toity. I usu. say it when I'm trying to be funny.
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Old 07-27-2019, 08:02 PM
 
6,741 posts, read 3,791,154 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Lodestar View Post
It's worse when people say ". . .to me and Bill." In keeping with our increasingly self-centered society today most everyone puts themselves first.

But that's bad grammar, not exactly the same thing as irritating speech habits.
It's not bad grammar to put "me" before "Bill" in that sentence.

It depends on who should go first. If I'm a supervisor telling an employee, "Send that report to me and Bill" (where Bill is my assistant), it would be appropriate to put myself first. Which one goes first depends on the situation, if it matters at all. Either is correct. As long as the person uses "me" and not "I."
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Old 07-27-2019, 08:16 PM
 
Location: Upstate NY
35,826 posts, read 10,617,840 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by vrexy View Post
Nope! Not in the example that was given. What is proper is to say, "She gave the weed to Bill and me." Eliminate Bill and you will see what I mean. You would never say, "She gave the weed to I." You would say, "She gave the weed to me."

You're making up things. You might want to read that post again. Nowhere did I state that "to Bill and I" is correct. And I don't need to eliminate "Bill." It's a simple matter of a preposition taking the objective pronoun.

As I posted, one should say "to Bill and me," but "to me and Bill is grammatically correct.

Useless phrases and why people use them-1pymhv.jpg
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Old 07-27-2019, 09:21 PM
 
Location: Wonderland
45,224 posts, read 36,432,107 times
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I much prefer "Bill and me" to "me and Bill" but hey, that's just me - and not Bill.

If I was saying "Send this to me, as well as to Bill, who is my administrative assistant," I would actually probably say "Please send this to me, and also to Bill." "Me and Bill" sounds country bumpkin to me. But hey, I DIGRESS! LOL
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Old Yesterday, 01:17 AM
 
Location: Stephenville, Texas
959 posts, read 1,449,449 times
Reputation: 1889
Starting every sentence with "so" or "well".
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