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Old 10-03-2011, 08:38 AM
 
Location: WV and Eastport, ME
10,268 posts, read 10,379,895 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by catman View Post
Yes, but the "word of God" hadn't been compiled into a Bible at that time, so doesn't refer to it. It was "heard" verbally.
Quote:
Originally Posted by jimmiej View Post
It is considered Holy Scripture now, so what's your point?
Quote:
Originally Posted by jimmiej View Post
My point was the answer the OP. Your point seems to be something else.
jimmiej, you're missing the point. At the time those statements in the NT were written, "Word of God" meant the religious documents recognized by the Jewish rabbi community. If any document (such as NT writings) wasn't Scripture at the time, it is not possible for it to be referenced as "Word of God." Therefore, to answer the OP, only OT writings can be applied.
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Old 10-03-2011, 11:59 AM
Status: "Build the damn wall!" (set 5 days ago)
 
Location: The Haunted Mansion
15,134 posts, read 8,226,063 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mensaguy View Post
jimmiej, you're missing the point. At the time those statements in the NT were written, "Word of God" meant the religious documents recognized by the Jewish rabbi community. If any document (such as NT writings) wasn't Scripture at the time, it is not possible for it to be referenced as "Word of God." Therefore, to answer the OP, only OT writings can be applied.
That's ridiculous! The OP made no such stipulations. The question was asked in present time.
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Old 10-03-2011, 12:19 PM
 
Location: Ohio
13,951 posts, read 10,312,628 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jimmiej View Post
That's ridiculous! The OP made no such stipulations. The question was asked in present time.
It certainly is relevant. If something was written in one of the books that said it was true and then later something was added, the truth claim cannot be applied to the added or changed material.
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Old 10-03-2011, 01:29 PM
Status: "Build the damn wall!" (set 5 days ago)
 
Location: The Haunted Mansion
15,134 posts, read 8,226,063 times
Reputation: 1543
Quote:
Originally Posted by WhipperSnapper 88 View Post
It certainly is relevant. If something was written in one of the books that said it was true and then later something was added, the truth claim cannot be applied to the added or changed material.
Well, the only two Scriptures that were shown to you (claiming that all Scripture is true & from God) were written after the OT was already written.

Regardless, that's not what you aked.
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Old 10-03-2011, 01:31 PM
 
15,727 posts, read 9,111,314 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by revrandy View Post
Most fundies will quote 2 Timothy 3:16.

All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, 17that the man of God[a] may be competent, equipped for every good work.

Of course they completely dismiss the scholarly view that Paul never even wrote 2 Timothy and what we have in the english language bible is different than what was written originally.
Not only that, but the only scripture that existed and was used by people for teaching, was the Tanakh (mainly the Torah). Jesus and Paul did not study the New Testament, or teach from it. They taught from the Torah.

Fundies, however, will claim that since the Catholic church arbitrarily decided what's in their New Testament is "scripture", it retroactively falls under the domain of 2 Timothy 3:16
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Old 10-03-2011, 01:33 PM
Status: "Build the damn wall!" (set 5 days ago)
 
Location: The Haunted Mansion
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Fiyero View Post
Not only that, but the only scripture that existed and was used by people for teaching, was the Tanakh (mainly the Torah). Jesus and Paul did not study the New Testament, or teach from it. They taught from the Torah.
Yes, but the OP was about the Bible, not the Torah.
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Old 10-03-2011, 01:36 PM
 
15,727 posts, read 9,111,314 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jimmiej View Post
That's ridiculous! The OP made no such stipulations. The question was asked in present time.
No, the OP asked where the Bible says it's the Word of God. The Bible never claimed the New Testament that we have today, is the Word of God. The Catholic Church decided that long after it was written.

That's flawed logic. And some denominations view the Apocrypha as scripture, which means by your logic, it is the Word of God too.
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Old 10-03-2011, 01:40 PM
 
Location: WV and Eastport, ME
10,268 posts, read 10,379,895 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jimmiej View Post
Yes, but the OP was about the Bible, not the Torah.
Do you know what the Torah is?
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Old 10-03-2011, 02:03 PM
Status: "Build the damn wall!" (set 5 days ago)
 
Location: The Haunted Mansion
15,134 posts, read 8,226,063 times
Reputation: 1543
Quote:
Originally Posted by Fiyero View Post
No, the OP asked where the Bible says it's the Word of God. The Bible never claimed the New Testament that we have today, is the Word of God. The Catholic Church decided that long after it was written.

That's flawed logic. And some denominations view the Apocrypha as scripture, which means by your logic, it is the Word of God too.
The modern Bible, used by Christians world-wide, contains the NT.
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Old 10-03-2011, 02:05 PM
Status: "Build the damn wall!" (set 5 days ago)
 
Location: The Haunted Mansion
15,134 posts, read 8,226,063 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mensaguy View Post
Do you know what the Torah is?
Yes.
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