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Originally Posted by Eusebius
Jesus spoke in Greek. He spoke to the Roman soldier concerning his daughter in Greek.
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Even if jesus did speak enough greek to make up a pun in it, would he have spoken Greek to Nicodemus, privately? As two Jews talking together they would have used aramaic.
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Also, the onus is not on me to prove Jesus' words were just made up by His disciples. Who in this thread began with that assumption? It is they who have to prove it. To prove it one would have to go back to the very people who wrote the gospels and ask them. Sorry but you are a little late for that.
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The common false argument that we cannot show what took place without a time machine. If that were the case, nobody could be convicted in court without CCTV footage of the incident. Even if one accepts the onus of showing that the words attributed to Jesus is the Bible were not actually said by him but made up by his followers (not the actual disciples of course - that is not the actual thing that needs to be proven) that has been discharged, but as we have seen you refuse to accept even the most clear and plain evidence that one version of 'what Jesus said' cannot be true. Note, the figtree argument.
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Also your "evidence" of Jesus' talk with old Nic does not prove your point.
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It does, as pointed out above, and also proves the point that you have to employ a whole series of tricks and evasions in order to avoid facing unwelcome facts.
