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Okay, so we're past that part of objective morality then? You agree morality is not objective?
You're kind of mixing up arguments here. Psalm 137 is an imprecatory Psalm. It was written by a man that was expressing happiness over seeing his enemies who had mistreated his people defeated. The act that he describes is never said to be moral, or good. It really has NOTHING to do with this thread.
You're kind of mixing up arguments here. Psalm 137 is an imprecatory Psalm. It was written by a man that was expressing happiness over seeing his enemies who had mistreated his people defeated. The act that he describes is never said to be moral, or good.
Can you accept that cultures have sacrificed and murdered babies believing they were doing the right thing?
Can you accept that cultures have sacrificed and murdered babies believing they were doing the right thing?
That has nothing to do with the question, though. You keep changing the topic. I'm asking you if you believe that torturing babies to death simply for no other reason but personal pleasure is good? Not for sacrifice...not because their god supposedly commanded it. For NO OTHER REASON but that they derived satisfaction and pleasure from it. Is that a moral act?
That has nothing to do with the question, though. You keep changing the topic. I'm asking you if you believe that torturing babies to death simply for no other reason but personal pleasure is good? Not for sacrifice...not because their god supposedly commanded it. For NO OTHER REASON but that they derived satisfaction and pleasure from it. Is that a moral act?
You have a very deep misunderstanding of morality.
Quote:
Morality: concerned with the principles of right and wrong behavior and the goodness or badness of human character.
I haven't suggested that it exists, or that anyone has done it. I'm using it as a hypothetical argument. It does demonstrate an objectively immoral behavior.
Well, since you can't even prove that it exists, it has no place in this argument, now does it?
Can you think of a situation that DOES exist that supports the possibilities in this argument?
You're kind of mixing up arguments here. Psalm 137 is an imprecatory Psalm. It was written by a man that was expressing happiness over seeing his enemies who had mistreated his people defeated. The act that he describes is never said to be moral, or good. It really has NOTHING to do with this thread.
It really has EVERYTHING to do with this thread (and idea).
If the Bible is inspired by, or is the actual word of, God, then every word of it is there for a reason, and almost always, that reason is a lesson.
If the lesson here is to NOT do this, then I'm surprised there was no follow-up where the happy murderers were smote, or something along those lines. That simply doesn't make sense. Instead it is listed as if the happy bloody painful murder of these infants was justified. I'm sorry, it's implied, period, by their happiness, which was NOT then admonished by God or in any other way.
You are saying this passage has nothing to do with the argument because it's very obvious that it denies your argument. That's not honest debating. That's dodging.
Well, since you can't even prove that it exists, it has no place in this argument, now does it?
Can you think of a situation that DOES exist that supports the possibilities in this argument?
If not, then we don't have an argument, LOL.
I mean how very weird...
Enough with the distractions.
I'm asking you if that hypothetical situation would ever be considered good and moral. Can you do that? The fact that you can't demonstrates that it's an objectively immoral act. This objectively immoral act demonstrates objective morality that is not based on any culture, or time, or anything on earth.
Having said that, I'd hate to be accused of hijacking the thread because those on your side can't come up with a reasonable argument, so I'm going to just assume you have no argument and consider my point to be made. I'll await your attempts to deflect/respond.
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