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Location: In a little house on the prairie - literally
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Vizio
The text does not say rape. Do you not understand that? It says he will give their wives to other men. It doesn't say that other men would rape their wives.
And where is the right to chose implicit in that statement for the women whether to be involved in a public orgy?
There is NO indication.
I can't believe how dogmatic so many fundamentalists are in defending the indefensible. Where is your sense of morality? Where do you even pretend to get your morality from? It certainly isn't from any humanist perspective.
If God did nothing, you would be blasting Him for not getting rid of evil people. Actually we can see what has happened when His people did not follow His commandments. The Jews were enslaved and abused like no other race in human history. We have groups today like ISIS as a result of not wiping out the cancer of evil men in the OT.
Correct me if I am wrong but was that not he purpose of your global flood?
The text does not say rape. Do you not understand that? It says he will give their wives to other men. It doesn't say that other men would rape their wives.
What does "sleep with in broad daylight" suggest to you, Pastor?
How hard is it to understand the is *your* god doing the speaking. Not an interpretation. Not a metaphor (although it would be a horrible one if it was). And not allegory.
BTW, who gets to choose when something is not literal in the bible?
If at that time the punishment for adultry was being stoned to death, is it not reasonable to read the part about the women being given to another man as anything else than the women having sex without consent? I am not sure how specific the wording has to be so perhaps you can explain how you would intrepet that passage, given the context of the situation and it being in the OT with the laws that it had?
An honest question not saying you are wrong, just wondering how else the passage would be taken.
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