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So while we are no longer under the Law of Moses found in the OT, sexual immorality is still a sin against a holy and righteous God.
The great thing about morals however is that we are usually able to explore it using rational discourse and establish how and why something is immoral.
With homosexuality however you and others who suggest it is immoral have failed utterly to come up with any arguments, evidence, data or reasoning to support that position. There is simply nothing on offer, least of all from you and your cohorts like JeffBase, to suggest that consensual sexual acts between adults is immoral.
That is the joy of religion for many I guess. When there is something one finds personally distasteful but can not establish rational argument against it, one merely has to invent a god, declare that god to be against the thing in question, and job done.
And it further gets that person the ability to distance themselves from their hatred. They can throw their hands up and say "Don't look at me, it is god that hates it not me, don't shoot the messenger".
And don't give us this "Out of context" nonsense, because it isn't. And don't even try and say, "Well, that's the OT", because you are perfectly comfortable quoting things like anti-gay or your 10 commandments from that. Yeah, we know all about that fulfillment stuff from your christ, but he also said he was not there to "change one tittle", so that is a non-argument also.
So, let's get into the nitty-gritty, shall we?
Deuteronomy 17
17:2 If there be found among you, within any of thy gates which the LORD thy God giveth thee, man or woman, that hath wrought wickedness in the sight of the LORD thy God, in transgressing his covenant;
17:3 And hath gone and served other gods, and worshipped them, either the sun, or moon, or any of the host of heaven, which I have not commanded;
17:4 And it be told thee, and thou hast heard of it, and enquired diligently, and, behold, it be true, and the thing certain, that such abomination is wrought in Israel;
17:5 Then shalt thou bring forth that man or that woman, which have committed that wicked thing, unto thy gates, even that man or that woman, and shalt stone them with stones, till they die.
So, with that Abrahamic script put down, is it any wonder Mo the prophet commanded infidels to be killed? I mean, look how that worked out for the jews and christians, right? Hey, it must be a good thing, so why not jump on that bandwagon.
Disgusting pieces of literature, both of them. Even more disgusting are those that take them at their word.
That has nothing to do with the New Testament.
Christians are under the New Testament , not the Old Testament.
No.... it is probably one of your most desperate posts dodging the point by attacking something that was not said.
READ the title of the thread again. It says "BIBLE: Kill all non-believers".
In other words Jesus was not the point AT ALL, yet you roll in demanding the OP back up a point he never made, something he never said, and an idea he never espoused. And after that blatant and wanton mis-representation of the OP you then accuse HIM of being the "desperate" one? Puh-leese.
Got it?
Nope I don't get it.
In the eyes of Christian the Bible is the New Testament.
So then we can discount the Deuteronomy verses about homosexuality as well? After all Jesus didn't say anything about gays.
Jesus the Christ and his last name is not Christ didn't say anything about homosexuality , because the only sactioned sex in the Old and New Testament was between a man and a woman in a marriage.
He meaningJesus said a lot about marriage though , being between a man and a woman. And in the New Testament he clearly states one man and one woman constitutes a marriage.
Jesus the Christ and his last name is not Christ didn't say anything about homosexuality , because the only sactioned sex in the Old and New Testament was between a man and a woman in a marriage.
He meaningJesus said a lot about marriage though , being between a man and a woman. And in the New Testament he clearly states one man and one woman constitutes a marriage.
He didn't say one man and one woman...And tell me, where Isaac and Rachel married when he took her into his mother's tent and layed with her?...What about David and all his wives?...What about G-d stating that He would have given David more wives if that is what he wanted?...If the only sanctioned sex in the Tanakh was man and woman and that is the reason Jesus said nothing about it, then why did the later writers of the Letters feel the need to mention it?...
In the eyes of Christian the Bible is the New Testament.
30 Behold, days are coming, says the Lord, and I will form a covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah, a new covenant.
31 Not like the covenant that I formed with their forefathers on the day I took them by the hand to take them out of the land of Egypt, that they broke My covenant, although I was a lord over them, says the Lord.
32 For this is the covenant that I will form with the house of Israel after those days, says the Lord: I will place My law in their midst and I will inscribe it upon their hearts, and I will be their God and they shall be My people.
33 And no longer shall one teach his neighbor or [shall] one [teach] his brother, saying, "Know the Lord," for they shall all know Me from their smallest to their greatest, says the Lord, for I will forgive their iniquity and their sin I will no longer remember.
34 So said the Lord, Who gives the sun to illuminate by day, the laws of the moon and the stars to illuminate at night, Who stirs up the sea and its waves roar, the Lord of Hosts is His name.
35 If these laws depart from before Me, says the Lord, so will the seed of Israel cease being a nation before Me for all time.
I wonder how Christians justify stealing what G-d clearly meant for the Jews and applying it to themselves...
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Howest2008
Jesus the Christ and his last name is not Christ didn't say anything about homosexuality , because the only sactioned sex in the Old and New Testament was between a man and a woman in a marriage.
He meaningJesus said a lot about marriage though , being between a man and a woman. And in the New Testament he clearly states one man and one woman constitutes a marriage.
You ignored the part of "not one tittle" being changed. Why did you ignore that?
Because it would dismantle his theology on it...
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