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You personally believe it was not written chronologically?
Why would he increase her labor pains? Maybe b/c she committed the sin by eating the forbidden fruit, thus God punishing her by increasing her pains. You still haven't justified either the incest or the blaming of mankind for a sin committed by Eve.
I know it wasn't written chronologically. Wait, that's not an accurate statement. I know that the Bible (in particular the Old Testament and even more in particular Genesis) is not in chronological order. That's pretty common knowledge. I'm not sure, however, if there are any 'mainstream' folks who believe that Adam and Eve had children prior to the fall.
My point on the labor pains was that God told Eve that as a result of the fall, He would increase her pains in child birth. If she had never had child birth, what pains would there have been to increase.
Lastly, all of this took place before the advent of the Old Testament Law. The sin of incest and the curse brought on by that sin (genetic mutation) had yet to be handed down as sin/punishment.
The story of Adam and Eve in Genesis is mythical and immoral. The story shows that it's acceptable to punish people for the sins of others (original sin), death is a suitable punishment for disobedience and approves of incest.
Exactly how does it show it's acceptable to punish people for the sins of others?
Incest
After Adam and Eve had children, how did they proceed onto the third generation? Their children must have slept with each other, or their own parents.
The same applies to the story of Noah's Ark, Lot and his daughters.
The main problem is biological. Interbreeding two families causes severe retardation, mutation and infertility.
The only biologically correct explanation known is that we evolved slowly from lower animals so that incest was never a problem.
I believe that the human body that God created for Adam and Eve was probaly pretty close to perfect even after the fall. As time has progressed the body has degenerated. Therfore there was no chance of retardation or deformities or whatever from interbreeding. It was a necessity then because there wasn't a whole lot to choose from. And like I belive it was Alpha who said that Christ fulfilled the old laws and brought new laws with him. It is not acceptable for us to commit incest because it is immoral and our bodies are far from perfect.
Original Sin and Free Will
Adam and Eve did not know of good and evil. They were innocent. They couldn't have known that the "talking snake" was lying to them. But if God is all knowing, and knew that they would have believed the serpent, why did God not stop the serpent? Why the "test" if He knew the outcome?
Adam and Eve were innocent and did not know good from evil but the moment they partook of the forbidden fruit their minds were opened.
If God knows what we will do before it happens, what good is Free Will?
I have often thought about this question and I don't think anyone can totally give a reasonable answer. God loved mankind so much that he gave us the gift of free agency. If God were to take that away from us then He would be less than God. He does know all but He is God because He lets us choose for ouselves if that makes any sense.
The story is immoral on many counts.
3. Misogyny, in Genesis, Eve, in particular, was given immense blame and said to have caused all of womankind to be inferior, naturally inclined to sin.
As far as misogyny. I totally don't agree in fact I think Eve was extremely wise in telling Adam after they partook of the fruit that they were commanded to multiple and replenish the earth and if she left he would be alone therefore he needed to partake for the sake of man. And biologically incorrect?? Where's your proof? And no it absolutely is not a fact that evolution occured. If so where are the millions of bodies that were incorrectly formed until whatever got it right??
So to those that believe in the Bible and believe it is the absolute truth. How can you base your life in a book in which the very foundation of it is flawed beyond comprehension and morality?
My point on the labor pains was that God told Eve that as a result of the fall, He would increase her pains in child birth. If she had never had child birth, what pains would there have been to increase.
Oh, ok, I got it! That makes sense now.
Quote:
Lastly, all of this took place before the advent of the Old Testament Law. The sin of incest and the curse brought on by that sin (genetic mutation) had yet to be handed down as sin/punishment.
Does that help in your search for Truth?
Now, Lot impregnated his daughters while drunk therefore committing the same sin in the New Testament but were not punished. How come?
Now, Lot impregnated his daughters while drunk therefore committing the same sin in the New Testament but were not punished. How come?
I can give you the religious answer. It's probably going to have to do with the fact that after Jesus died on the cross, God then turned his court system into one that is judgement after death based on your belief that Jesus was a savior.
It's kind of like this: For 200+ years, we have had trials for the accused in a jury based system. All of a sudden, the President decides that if you accept the law into your own heart than you will not be judged until after death. So now, instead of condemning people to death for crimes they committed or putting them in jail, we let them run free until the day they die. It makes perfect sense doesn't it?
Now, Lot impregnated his daughters while drunk therefore committing the same sin in the New Testament but were not punished. How come?
Let me revisit this story from the OT and get back with you.
I THINK (if my memory serves me and frequently it doesn't) that Lot's daughters got him drunk and then they lay with him. That'd be kinda 'impregnation under duress' so to speak
Anyway, can you rephrase your question above....I'm struggling with reading it.
I can give you the religious answer. It's probably going to have to do with the fact that after Jesus died on the cross, God then turned his court system into one that is judgement after death based on your belief that Jesus was a savior.
It's kind of like this: For 200+ years, we have had trials for the accused in a jury based system. All of a sudden, the President decides that if you accept the law into your own heart than you will not be judged until after death. So now, instead of condemning people to death for crimes they committed or putting them in jail, we let them run free until the day they die. It makes perfect sense doesn't it?
Correct. That does make sense. But Lot's story happened before Jesus died on the cross. But neither were punished for their sins.
If she did not know of good and evil, how was she to know the devil lied and decieved her?
If He knew the outcome why bother with all this? What's the point of free will, if He already knows how it will turn out and knows what action to take?
God told them do not eat fruit from tree of knowledge of good and evil or you will die. Eve knew what God said, but she disobeyed Him. God wants us to love Him out of freedom of choice. Why bother with all this.....because He loves us, that's why he provides a way out of sin....Jesus.
Let me revisit this story from the OT and get back with you.
I THINK (if my memory serves me and frequently it doesn't) that Lot's daughters got him drunk and then they lay with him. That'd be kinda 'impregnation under duress' so to speak
Anyway, can you rephrase your question above....I'm struggling with reading it.
Afterwards, I'll do what I can for a response.
I incorrectly stated Lot's story being in the New Testament when it wasn't. I'll let you revisit the story, maybe I'm missing something. Thanks!
Now, Lot impregnated his daughters while drunk therefore committing the same sin in the New Testament but were not punished. How come?
In some cases the Bible does not judge people for their actions. It simply reports the events. Maybe the consequences of their action was Moab and Ammon (the sons of the daughters) became enemies of Israel.
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