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Where does the concept of monotheism originate in the Judeo-Christian tradition, and what, exactly, does it mean? I'll start with the second question, which will help contextualize my evaluation of the first. Since monotheism developed first in a Jewish context, and was adopted later by Christianity after it had largely matured (save some concerns about principle angels and the developing "Son of God" tradition), this post will deal exclusively with the Hebrew Bible, or Old Testament
The term was coined in the 17th century by Henry More, the philosopher of the Cambridge Platonist school. It was originally employed as an antonym to atheism, not to polytheism. It was later appropriated for the latter use and took on the definition of a belief in the existence of only one deity. This use was widely accepted in religious discourse without much consideration of its application to the biblical text. The Bible, after all, frequently mentions the existence of other deities (אלהים). For example, in Psalm 97:7 we find the imperative, "Bow down to him, all you gods." In Deuteronomy 10:17 Yhwh is described as the "God of gods." Man is said to be made "a little lower than the gods" (Ps 8:6 [ET 8:5]). Other texts refer to the "Sons of God" (Gen 6:2; Ps 29:1; 89:7; Job 1:6; 2:1), and the "Sons of Elyon" (Ps 82:6), which are themselves deities. From Deut 32:8-9, as preserved in the Septuagint and in the Dead Sea Scrolls (4QDeutj), we know the "Sons of God" were set up by Elyon as rulers over the nations of the earth. Deut 4:19 describes those "Sons of God" as the astral deities (or "hosts of heaven") worshipped by the nations of the earth. Moses is said to be made as a god to Pharaoh (Exod 7:1). David is praised with the word "god" in Psalm 45. Even the deceased prophet Samuel is described with the Hebrew word for God in 1 Samuel 28:13.
The assertion is often made that these references must be interpreted within the framework provided by texts like Psalm 96:5: כל אלהי העמימ אילילים, "All the gods of the nations are worthless." The word אילילים is often translated "idols," although it does not strictly mean that. The word אילילים is applied to the gods of the nations in 1 Chronicles 16:26 in contrast to Yhwh's creative power. Examine other references to the אלהי העמימ, "gods of the nations" (Deut 6:14; 13:8; 29:17; Judg 2:12; 2 Kgs 18:33; 19:12; Isa 36:18; 37:12; 2 Chr 32:13, 14, 17) and you will see the criticism leveled against them by the biblical authors is that they did not have the power to deliver their people, not that they do not exist.
The two texts which seem to most vehemently deny the existence of other gods, Deuteronomy and Deutero-Isaiah, actually do no such thing. The phrases being used ("no god beside me," etc.) are also used in reference to the other nations of the earth. For instance, in Isa 47:8, 10, and Zeph 2:15 the phrase "I am and there is no other" is put into the mouths of personified Babylon and Nineveh. The claim is intended to communicate their incomparability vis-à-vis other cities. They aren't saying they are the only cities in existence, but only that, as far as their constituency is concerned, they're all that matters. In Isa 40:17 we find the assertion that, in God's eyes, all the nations "are as nothing before him; he considers them less than nothing." Deut 32:21 makes use of similar vernacular, claiming that Israel's devotion to "a non-god" (בלא־אל) will be recompensed with oppression from a "non-city" (בלא־עם). The reference is to Assyria, which certainly did exist. The vernacular is clearly not a negative ontological statement, but simple hyperbolic rhetoric aimed at asserting the incomparability of Yhwh. Isa 43:10 makes reference to the ostensible divine nature of idols. It is saying that the idols being made by hand are not deities. For this reason the verb יצר appears. Elsewhere where Yhwh is said to have made the heavenly hosts the verbs ברא and עשה appear. יצר as far as I can tell, is never used in a theogonic sense anywhere.
The rhetoric of incomparability ("none like Yhwh," etc.) found elsewhere that is often appealed to as an indication of strict monotheism is also largely misinterpreted. It is also found in explicitly polytheistic cultures. An Assyrian hymn to Shamash:
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You alone are manifest. No one among the gods can rival you.
A neo-Babylonian prayer to Ishtar:
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O Mistress, splendid is your greatness, exalted over all the gods.
A Sumerian hymn:
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Nanshe, your divine powers are not matched by any other divine powers.
Now compare to the Hebrew Bible:
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Exod 18:11: Now I know that the Lord is greater than all gods.
Ps 95:3: For the Lord is a great God, and a great King above all gods.
Ps 96:4: For the Lord is great, and greatly to be praised: he is to be feared above all gods.
Ps 97:9: For thou, Lord, art high above all the earth: thou art exalted far above all gods.
Ps 135:5: For I know that the Lord is great, and that our Lord is above all gods.
Given that the Hebrew Bible recognizes the existence of numerous other deities, how can we call it monotheistic? The word originated as a descriptive term for Judeo-Christian theology, so it must be applicable. It cannot mean the existence of only one deity, but it can refer to the taxonomical uniqueness of God. This requires compartmentalization of the term אלהים. One אלהים must be of a different type than another. This is not justified by the use of the word in Hebrew Bible, however. No lexical distinctions are made between one אלהים and another. The term is a spectrum that is occasionally used to refer to angels (Judg 13:22), dead prophets (1 Sam 28:13), and even, metaphorically, humans (Exod 7:1; Ps 45:3-7). When we see Jews or Christians consciously compartmentalizing the different uses of the terms for deity then we can say they have adopted a monotheistic outlook.
Moving on to the first question from the beginning of this post, when and how did this take place? I suggest it took place during the Hellenistic Period, specifically with the translation of the Hebrew Bible into Greek. The clearest example of this is found in LXX Deut 32:43, where the original “worship him all you gods” (4QDeutq: השתחוו לו כל אלהים) is expanded to two cola which place the Sons of God (υἱοὶ θεοῦ) parallel to the angels of God (ἄγγελοι θεοῦ). This text manifests an attempt, either on the part of the translator or his Vorlage, to accommodate Judaism’s scriptural heritage to a theology which was comfortable with the existence of other deities, provided they were confined to a distinct taxonomy that existed only to obediently serve Israel’s God. The angels of God are not being promoted to the level of the Sons of God, the Sons of God are being relegated to the level of angels. Rather than "divinity" (the literal meaning of אלהים) being a large category that includes God, angels, and deceased rulers, God now exists in a separate category from the other deities, which are consolidated in the angelic taxonomy.
The widespread literacy and pluriform literary traditions of Greek culture provided Judaism with the expansive ideological canvas it needed to explore and develop these beliefs. The roots, however, stretch back to the pre-exilic period, where God began to be universalized and promoted above the pantheons of the surrounding nations. The events that shaped Judaism's self-image (the loss of the Northern Kingdom, the Exile, the return) spurred its constant reassessment of its own deity and made these developments possible.
Where does the concept of monotheism originate in the Judeo-Christian tradition, and what, exactly, does it mean? I'll start with the second question, which will help contextualize my evaluation of the first. Since monotheism developed first in a Jewish context, and was adopted later by Christianity after it had largely matured (save some concerns about principle angels and the developing "Son of God" tradition), this post will deal exclusively with the Hebrew Bible, or Old Testament
Given that the Hebrew Bible recognizes the existence of numerous other deities, how can we call it monotheistic? The word originated as a descriptive term for Judeo-Christian theology, so it must be applicable. It cannot mean the existence of only one deity, but it can refer to the taxonomical uniqueness of God.
Thoughts?
"You shall have no other gods before me."
That is the second commandment of the 10
As a Christian I am well aware of other gods and I am sure many exist. IMO they are limited in scope and power. They tend to be regional.
Being monotheistic means I worship the God who created all. I only put my trust and life into the hands of this God. The one who had no beginning and has no end. Omniknowing. Omnipresent and Omnipowerful. For more details please refer to the Bible.
Knowing that other gods exist does not make one a polytheist. it's who you worship and trust in that determines the label
As a Christian I am well aware of other gods and I am sure many exist. IMO they are limited in scope and power. They tend to be regional.
Being monotheistic means I worship the God who created all. I only put my trust and life into the hands of this God. The one who had no beginning and has no end. Omniknowing. Omnipresent and Omnipowerful. For more details please refer to the Bible.
Knowing that other gods exist does not make one a polytheist. it's who you worship and trust in that determines the label
I agree for the most part (although omniscience, omnipotence, and especially omnipresence are not biblical in origin). My definition of monotheism, however, means Judeo-Christian monotheism overlaps with monolatry, which is the worship of a single deity without denying the existence of other deities. Polytheism, as it is used in academic vernacular, is distinguished from monolatry as the actual worship of multiple deities. To say you believe other deities exist is not to say you're a polytheist.
Given that the Hebrew Bible recognizes the existence of numerous other deities, how can we call it monotheistic?
We can't, which is why everyone calls it henotheism.
Monotheism is not merely the belief in one god, rather it is the belief that there is only one god, and there have never been any other gods.
Henotheism is the belief in one god to the exclusion of all other gods.
The Hebrews did eventually seem to gravitate toward monaltry, that is one god for the Hebrews, one god for this group, one god for that group and so on.
We can't, which is why everyone calls it henotheism.
Monotheism is not merely the belief in one god, rather it is the belief that there is only one god, and there have never been any other gods.
Henotheism is the belief in one god to the exclusion of all other gods.
The Hebrews did eventually seem to gravitate toward monaltry, that is one god for the Hebrews, one god for this group, one god for that group and so on.
I agree for the most part. The semantic senses of the words "henotheism" and "monolatry" share quite a bit of overlap, however, and most scholars these days don't recognize any value in a distinction. Some authors reject both descriptions. A couple decent books that address this terminology are Robert Gnuse, No Other Gods: Emergent Monotheism in Israel, and Johann C. De Moor, The Rise of Yahwism.
We can't, which is why everyone calls it henotheism.
Monotheism is not merely the belief in one god, rather it is the belief that there is only one god, and there have never been any other gods.
Henotheism is the belief in one god to the exclusion of all other gods.
The Hebrews did eventually seem to gravitate toward monaltry, that is one god for the Hebrews, one god for this group, one god for that group and so on.
Where does the concept of monotheism originate in the Judeo-Christian tradition, and what, exactly, does it mean? I'll start with the second question, which will help contextualize my evaluation of the first. Since monotheism developed first in a Jewish context, and was adopted later by Christianity after it had largely matured (save some concerns about principle angels and the developing "Son of God" tradition), this post will deal exclusively with the Hebrew Bible, or Old Testament
Monotheism actually originated in ancient Egypt and was later adapted along with other concepts such as the ten commandments, by the early Hebrews and authors of the Old Testament.
Monotheism actually originated in ancient Egypt and was later adapted along with other concepts such as the ten commandments, by the early Hebrews and authors of the Old Testament.
Thanks for the response, Quixotic. Akhenaten's short attempt to promote the worship of Aten and relegate other deities to the realm of hypostases was simple dynastic and centralizing propaganda, and it was abolished immediately after his death in the late 14th century BCE. How it could have survived under the radar for a thousand years and then pop back up at the end of a long ideological trajectory toward the monotheism I described in the OP is a problem to which I don't think you have an answer. The Ten Commandments also have little, if anything, to do with Egypt. They were written well after Egypt lost its hegemony in Syria-Palestine.
The Jews developed monothesis because of the ten commandments and the Shma Deut. 6:4. They misinterpreted Echad to mean one, yet it means unity. So Yaweh is rather a unity then Y'chid, one indivisible.
Yahwah was one from the beginning for Adam and Eve knew him as one God. However, this one being had more then one faccet. Since the bible opens with him as Elohim or God plural. If he was singular he would have been Eloha. Some Jewish scholars attribute this plurality of the God head as due his size. Since Elolhim acts in a singularity "bara" creating with a single act.
Abraham in the Ur of the Chaldees was merely a Kwaity who heard God and left the Polytheism of Chaldea. He traveled the Fertile Cressent no doubt seeing all of the gods of the heathen nations. But he believed that one God, the God of gods called him. It is said that Abraham believed God and it was accounted to him for righteousness.
As Christians we believe that God is a trinity of the Father, Son(Jesus Christ) and Holy Spirit. But we believe that there are many gods. It is written "As many believe on his name (the name of Jesus) gave he power to be called the Sons of God". So all Christians, those who believe on his name, are gods. Adam himself was called the son of God. And so too any of the righteous that came after him were called Sons of God.
We believe one day that the Sons of God will be revealed. That is all those who truly believe in God, on the name of the Son, will be revealed by God and everyone else or the ungodly will be judged and cast into hell. And hell will be cast into the lake of fire.
So, the Judeo-Christian system is not monotheistic, It originally believed many gods, with Yahweh as creator of all. The Jewish scholars have attempted to corral this belief that there is only one God. But Christianity (a sect of Judaism) now believes in the plurality of gods (every Christian is a god) and of the One true God, which is one God, but a trinity in centers of concience.
This did not develop over time, but we believe was what was from the beginning and only revealed over time. Just as we wait for the Son's of God to be revealed.
The Jews developed monothesis because of the ten commandments and the Shma Deut. 6:4. They misinterpreted Echad to mean one, yet it means unity. So Yaweh is rather a unity then Y'chid, one indivisible.
But אחד does not mean unity. It's most widely used to refer to numerical singularity. Thus "one place" (Gen 1:9), "one of your brothers" (Gen 42:19), "a single one of you" (Josh 23:10), "not even one" (Ps 14:3), "for a single day" (1 Kgs 5:2), etc. While the word can often be used to mean "another" in a group, the fundamental meaning is singularity by separation. The word you're thinking of is the verb יחגד, which means "together," "altogether," or "community." יחד is related to אחד, but the former has its own substantive form, יחיד, which actually means "only," or "lonely."
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Originally Posted by Nikk
Yahwah was one from the beginning for Adam and Eve knew him as one God. However, this one being had more then one faccet. Since the bible opens with him as Elohim or God plural. If he was singular he would have been Eloha. Some Jewish scholars attribute this plurality of the God head as due his size. Since Elolhim acts in a singularity "bara" creating with a single act.
The word elohim is morphologically plural, but is used most commonly as a reference to a singular subject. This was actually a very common convention in the ancient Near East, and numerous texts from Amarna, Qatna, Taanach, Phoenicia, and Ugarit use the plural form of god to refer to a single God. This usage predates the Hebrew Bible by centuries and was simply borrowed by the Israelites. Originally, the plural was simply a way to for an abstraction ("divinity"), but with common use over time it became concretized in Israel in reference to Israel's high god, El. Thus, it's a concretized abstract plural. Size, qualities, and facets have nothing to do with the plural nature of the word.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Nikk
Abraham in the Ur of the Chaldees was merely a Kwaity who heard God and left the Polytheism of Chaldea. He traveled the Fertile Cressent no doubt seeing all of the gods of the heathen nations. But he believed that one God, the God of gods called him. It is said that Abraham believed God and it was accounted to him for righteousness.
As Christians we believe that God is a trinity of the Father, Son(Jesus Christ) and Holy Spirit. But we believe that there are many gods. It is written "As many believe on his name (the name of Jesus) gave he power to be called the Sons of God". So all Christians, those who believe on his name, are gods. Adam himself was called the son of God. And so too any of the righteous that came after him were called Sons of God.
In the Hebrew Bible the "Sons of God" were literal offspring of the high God El. They were definitely not humans. In Job, for instance, when the Sons of God shout for joy before the foundation of the earth, it's not referring to humans. By the time of the New Testament this view had been mitigated for reasons I outlined in the OP. Certain groups even tried to insist the Sons of God were human, which is why you have Christ's interpretation of Psalm 82 in John 10. That view is actually found several times throughout rabbinic literature.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Nikk
We believe one day that the Sons of God will be revealed. That is all those who truly believe in God, on the name of the Son, will be revealed by God and everyone else or the ungodly will be judged and cast into hell. And hell will be cast into the lake of fire.
So, the Judeo-Christian system is not monotheistic, It originally believed many gods, with Yahweh as creator of all. The Jewish scholars have attempted to corral this belief that there is only one God. But Christianity (a sect of Judaism) now believes in the plurality of gods (every Christian is a god) and of the One true God, which is one God, but a trinity in centers of concience.
This did not develop over time, but we believe was what was from the beginning and only revealed over time. Just as we wait for the Son's of God to be revealed.
A not uncommon fundamental Christian perspective, but not one that aligns with an informed and objective reading of the biblical text.
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