The "Hispanic" ethnic group in San Antonio (Hispanics, Brazilian)

[imaterry78259]

Originally Posted by huckster

Spaniards and Moors did not intermarry enough to differentiate
the spaniard bloodline through absorption , because of limited intermarriage
from differing religions. After 500 years the Moors were expelled from
Spain where they had a deleterious effect on culture , art etc. Then as now
the religion had a suppressing effect.
More to the point, Germans, Romans, Greeks and other cultures
had a more profound effect on the local populace.

Mexican features are North African or Arabic and Asian. Since man originated in Ethopia just go from there.

[huckster]

I just wonder how much of your information is empirical
when you quote about natives vs mexicans, central americans etc.
Europeans and natives have been intemingling for centuries here.
One cannot say this feature or that one denotes this or that lineage.
Just look at rita hayworth, known for the caucasian cast of her features.
She had such a low hairline that only electrolosis was it "fixed" ,raised. She was of course of mexican lineage.
Who knows how far back this gene may have arisen from within her
parents? How many generations?
It is like wondering how many people in s.a. have eastern european roots
versus western european roots recognizable by the 'Jewish" cast of their features.
A hypothesis is a supposition garnered from empirical data. Have you taken a cross sampling of s.a.'s hispanic genetic background?
Every single hispanic I have ever spoken to in S.A. traces their roots
to mexico, except for one and he was part apache. Only on his father's side however. This lineage was intermingled with hispanics -outside the reservation. Not to mention his mother's side.
Not just from San Antonio? Without proper cross sampling, all "theories" are invalid. S.A.'s population is very dynamic and always changing.
The indians were all forced onto reservations, here. Or simply killed off.
All know about the christianization of the natives.The missions etc,
this is how san antone was founded.
If you don't want to appear racist educate youself on the true
backgrounds. Otherwise all is pure tongue in cheek supposition.
Incidentally this is how the word "descent " is spelled not decent
as the words indecent vs. decent. Also how do you know also that you
would "awaken " some peoples desire to become interested in their lineage?
Don't you think they already know?
You must believe your thoughts to be very soul stirring and influential. Your profundity has certainly not inspired me.

Originally Posted by kenshin522

Hello again, I have been curious on this for a while and wonder what other people think... This topic revolves around the Hispanic population of San Antonio and their ancestral roots.

Most people can agree that the vast majority of Hispanics of San Antonio are technically Mestizo people. However, what is not very clear is their AmerIndian origins.

Most people today would simply assert that these people descend from people of Mexico and whom most if not all descend from the Uto-Aztecan group known as the Aztecs.

Although there is some truth to that it certainly does not account for all AmerIndian groups visible in San Antonio.

One thing most people seem to forget is that the native population of present day San Antonio were groups of nomadic and semi-nomadic people known as Coahuiltecans. These people were linguistically and ethnically related peoples who spanned most of historic South Texas.

After the Spanish came to this land they claimed it as their territory and built missions which to convert these Indians into citizens of New Spain.
Therefore the majority of these Indians and their descendants after contact with the missions and Spanish people would now speak the Spanish language and have aquired "Hispanic" names through conversion...

What we are taught is that most of these tribes no longer exist.. But still there are "some" decendants in the area... However there are a few hispanics which I have met and claim to have not decended from people from Mexico. One Lady I met who spoke Spanish, had a Spanish name stated that she wasnt even Hispanic but that all she knew is that her family had always been here in this area.

Phenotypically many San Antonio Hispanics appear much like Native Americans' from the USA. This includes lighter skin, more Asianic and gentle features compared with the AmerIndians of Mexico who are much darker in complexion as well as more robust features. Low hairlines like those in Aztecs' and Otomis', while noticeable are not as frequent as some might expect even in the predominate or full blood Amerindian.


Many of the Hispanics of this city appear to be of the Coahuiltecan lineage.
Some of these people may also decend from the Comanches and Apaches who also settled this area.

Note that I am NOT implying that ALL of the Hispanics of this city are of this decent.. There are many Mestizos and Indians from Mexico present here and while they do make up a noticeable amount it doesnt compare with other phenotypes which do not resemble them...

Based on my hypothesis of the city's 58 percent Hispanic population (though the number is probably higher since this is not based on those who are undocumented)... Roughly 30% to 32% of them diverge from the original AmerIndians of this state, including Apaches, Comanches, Kickapoos and Coahuiltecans.

Any other views, thoughts or opinions on this?

This is not a racist thread it is an observation and culturally appreciative thread that maybe will awaken some hispanics who read it to become interested in their background and cultural past. Especially when the notion that one of Hispanic decent originates in present day Mexico or other Latin American countries. When infact this is their ancestral historic homeland.

[Blue Dog]

I am an American of Mexican descent. That is all I need to know. I know where my parents and grandparents were born. Again,that is all I need to know. I don't need nobody to dissect my Heritage. I don't need another label thrust on me. I know what I need to know.

[bresilhac]

Originally Posted by huckster

Spaniards and Moors did not intermarry enough to differentiate
the spaniard bloodline through absorption , because of limited intermarriage
from differing religions. After 500 years the Moors were expelled from
Spain where they had a deleterious effect on culture , art etc. Then as now
the religion had a suppressing effect.
More to the point, Germans, Romans, Greeks and other cultures
had a more profound effect on the local populace.

Please explain more how the Moorish influence was deleterious in Spain during their reign. From what I understand the Moors had a tremendous culture of their own and were responsible for such wonders as the Escorial.

[bresilhac]

Originally Posted by imaterry78259

Mexican features are North African or Arabic and Asian. Since man originated in Ethopia just go from there.

I'm Mexican American and I don't resemble either Arabs or Ethiopians. My features would widely be considered Spanish more than anything else with a mix of Native American, German, Irish and Native Mexican.

What's interesting to me is how could there not have been any intermingling over the hundreds of years that the Moors ruled Spain. Because if what I believe is true then I've got at least some Arabic blood flowing through me because of Moorish/Spanish intermingling. And the later intermingling that took place in Spanish occupied Mexico.

[El Dandy]

My grandson (then 16) always preferred Latino. He is of Puerto Rican and Guatemalan parentage. I'm of Mexican descent (and of American Indian probably). My grandson's Guatemalan grandmother looked very Indian (mayan perhaps).

[Dopo]

This has to be one of the stupidest threads I've seen,
anybody that has lived in a Latinamerican country knows that:
1.- EVERYBODY is mixed.
2.- You could find out some people's racial lineage (somewhat) but for most people, it's impossible.
It's like grabbing a drop of water from a lake and trying to find out where it came from.

In Latinamerica, people have been "mixing" (don't like that term) for centuries.
Even Simon Bolivar, Liberator of Venezuela (1783-1830) was accused by many people of not being "pure white" but that he was mixed.

You can tell if people have a lot of White, Black, Ameridian, etc. But for most hispanics, it's impossible to know what they actually are.

[Dopo]

Originally Posted by huckster

After 500 years the Moors were expelled from
Spain where they had a deleterious effect on culture , art etc. Then as now
the religion had a suppressing effect.

Interesting comment, since people in Spain seem to think that they got a lot of good things from the muslims.
Muslim influence in Spain still felt in daily life - ii, The Milli Gazette, Vol. 2 No. 21

I would also like to know your opinion about the "christian suppressing effect on native americans"
Now, I'm sure many people out of hate or bias would claim that they know how negative the muslim influence was in Spain between 700 AC & 1500 AC.

If you want to be amazed, look at how many words in spanish have their roots in arabic.
Diccionario de Palabras Españolas de Origen Árabe

[HisLilSecret]

The term "hispanic" just chaps my behind!

[Pontifikate]

Originally Posted by HisLilSecret

The term "hispanic" just chaps my behind!

Why?