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Old 10-07-2006, 01:21 AM
 
679 posts, read 2,825,916 times
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On the home...if the home is acquired prior to marriage, the only way it can be kept as "sole and separate" property is if there are no comingled funds making the mortgage payment. The house payment could not be made with joint income. Once it is comingled, the spouses interest in the property is only a formulated portion of the equity that was acquired during the time of marriage (moore-marsden).
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Old 10-08-2006, 04:18 PM
 
Location: Austin TX
1,207 posts, read 6,262,684 times
Reputation: 420
Default good clarification

good clarification..my assumption in the example was the house being held free and clear!

Quote:
Originally Posted by texasdreamin View Post
On the home...if the home is acquired prior to marriage, the only way it can be kept as "sole and separate" property is if there are no comingled funds making the mortgage payment. The house payment could not be made with joint income. Once it is comingled, the spouses interest in the property is only a formulated portion of the equity that was acquired during the time of marriage (moore-marsden).
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Old 10-08-2006, 04:37 PM
 
Location: Where I live.
9,191 posts, read 21,792,762 times
Reputation: 4933
I later looked this subject up online and found that you can't even posess more than a very small amount of alcohol in these counties. Crazy stuff.

I grew up in a "dry" county.....you could not buy alcohol anywhere in the county other than the private country club if you were a member--liquor by the drink--but there was no enforced limit on how much you could buy elsewhere and bring home for use in your own private residence.

That same county is now "wet." It is very strange to go home for a visit...and see beer and wine for sale in the grocery stores!
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Old 10-08-2006, 05:01 PM
 
679 posts, read 2,825,916 times
Reputation: 208
Quote:
Originally Posted by gigi927 View Post
good clarification..my assumption in the example was the house being held free and clear!
Free and clear hadn't even entered my mind. I guess I figured NOBODY could possibly have a free and clear home in these days and times Well, maybe a few folks.
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Old 10-11-2006, 11:59 AM
 
27 posts, read 146,738 times
Reputation: 47
i just moved here (rockdale texas) from victorville calif......THE BIGGEST LAW THAT IS A ALARMING CHANGE FROM THE WEST COAST IS THE POT SMOKING LAWS...JUST BY MOVING FROME CAL TO TEX I AUTOMATICALLY BECAME A CRIMANAL....
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Old 10-11-2006, 12:03 PM
 
27 posts, read 146,738 times
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But I Did Buy A House Free And Clear , Bigger Than My Caif Home, And In Calif My Mortage Was $1400 A Month....you Need To Be Over 65 Years Old Or Be Dissabled To Get A Decent Break On House Taxes...otherwise They Are About Three Times More Than Calif With No Prop 13 Tax Raise Protection , If You Property Becomes Worth More Money Than You Taxes Goes Up Also...
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Old 10-11-2006, 01:34 PM
 
Location: Topeka, KS
1,560 posts, read 7,128,430 times
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One thing that I've found a difficult concept to get a grasp on is how home purchase negotiations go here.

I realize that there are some line items that are legally mandated to be paid by the buyer or seller, but there are a number of items that are not. These items are generally lumped together in negotiations and referred to as "Closing costs."

I'm use to negotiating on the price and who pays what and/or how much of the closing costs. A bid for a house might be "$250,000 and the buyer pays closing costs," which means, at closing I bring a check from the bank for $250,000 and a certified check for the closing costs. Another offer might be "$250,000 and the seller pays upto $5000 of the closing costs," which means I bring a check for $250,000 from the bank, the seller shows up with a check for $5,000, and I'd have a check for the balance of the closing costs.

In Texas, I've found that the offer of "$250,000 and the buyer pays closing" works the same. But the offer of "$250,000 and the seller pays upto $5000 of the closing costs," actually means I show up with a check for $255,000 and I pay directly for any additional costs. I'm not seeing where the seller is actually paying for anything.

(Of course all those offers are made on 15+ pages of obsuring language that only a laywer can understand.)
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Old 10-11-2006, 03:34 PM
 
Location: The Big D
14,862 posts, read 42,703,645 times
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The title company cuts the seller a check for the equity in their home they sold minus any and all closing fees or other items that they are to pay. So they pay for it but instead of two checks changing hands only one does. Kind of the you owe me $10 and I owe you $5 so instead of me handing you $5 and you handing me $10 we just skip that and you give me $5. On the sellers closing papers they have it all broken down and it does subtract these fees from their bottom dollar.
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Old 10-11-2006, 04:55 PM
 
Location: East Texas, with the Clan of the Cave Bear
3,245 posts, read 5,585,533 times
Reputation: 4709
Texas is not the most "gun friendly" state as many may think. That being said it is fairly easy to get a carry permit. We are not nearly as restrictive as NJ, NY, Ill., or Cali.. But there are states where it is legal to carry a gun openly (not in Texas) and states that adhere stricttly to the 2nd amendment and require no permit for gun carry. We are speaking of PISTOLS here. Long guns in Texas require no permit to transport/posess!

Also it is legal to shoot someone on your PROPERTY, at night, if they have crossed a fence.......in defense of life or property. My property is fenced!!

Bob
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Old 10-11-2006, 08:54 PM
 
Location: Perth, Western Australia
9,589 posts, read 27,710,095 times
Reputation: 3647
Only at night can you shoot in defence of property? That sounds a bit odd. I imagine that a few court cases have gone weird from that part, if it's correct.
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