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Old 04-11-2012, 09:30 PM
102 posts, read 247,942 times
Reputation: 116


I was watching a show and a husband hired somone to kill his wife but in the altercation the wife killed the man. The husband was charged with conspiracy to commit murder or some charge like that but not the murder of the man he hired. I know in alot of states if you engage in a robbery and someone is murdered no matter who it you will be charged with murder. Anywho why wasnt he charged? If the wife would have died and the investigators found out he would have been.
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Old 04-12-2012, 09:36 PM
Status: "I can learn to admire w/o having to aquire." (set 9 days ago)
Location: Where the last of the "Big 3" has retired. Spurs country.
3,042 posts, read 3,618,741 times
Reputation: 7414
I recently saw this story, but can't remember what the name of the show was. I think it was a new show on the ID (Investigative Discovery) channel. I didn't catch the charge against the husband, will do if I catch the re-run.

I like to watch the murder-for-hire stories. Very interesting to see how and why the person hiring the hit-man gets to that point, and who the intended target is.

Last edited by Lodestar 77; 04-12-2012 at 09:39 PM.. Reason: Added paragraph.
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Old 04-13-2012, 11:10 AM
Location: Parkville, MO
84 posts, read 111,029 times
Reputation: 116
One thing I'll never understand about murder-for-hire cases, is why sometimes the sentence for the trigger person is significantly reduced sentence compared to the sentence for the one who hired or persuaded them to do the killing. My thinking is, if it's that easy to convice them to kill someone, I don't want them out on the street any sooner than the person who hired them!
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Old 04-14-2012, 04:37 PM
Location: 39 20' 59"N / 75 30' 53"W
15,719 posts, read 22,782,500 times
Reputation: 17466
Nothing Personal : Investigation Discovery
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