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Old 05-13-2013, 06:58 PM
 
Location: Montreal
708 posts, read 765,165 times
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Why has Spain become a much more modern country in the past 5-6 decades than Argentina (even if Spain has had a severe recession for almost 5 years now), given that they have broadly similar cultural backgrounds? Was it partly because Francisco Franco was a more pro-development dictator than Peron etc., and thus more like a Pinochet? I know that Spain has become modernized largely thanks to joining the EU, but that doesn't tell the whole story.
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Old 05-13-2013, 09:27 PM
 
Location: Buenos Aires, Argentina
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No idea
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Old 05-13-2013, 09:58 PM
 
Location: DF
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Quote:
Originally Posted by yofie View Post
I know that Spain has become modernized largely thanks to joining the EU, but that doesn't tell the whole story.
Actually that pretty much tells most of it.
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Old 05-14-2013, 03:15 AM
 
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Originally Posted by joelaldo View Post
Actually that pretty much tells most of it.
No it doesn't, Spain was more developed than Argentina long time before joinig the EU.
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Old 05-14-2013, 04:05 AM
 
Location: Europe
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In the 80's Spain increased the economy a lot, then there was a criss around 1994 but since that dates until the current crisis the economy has been great and all the modern infraestructures have been built.
I think Spain has better subway stations and lines than for example NY, Vienna, Paris etc...

I have never been to Argentina
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Old 05-14-2013, 04:28 AM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Tempranillo View Post
No it doesn't, Spain was more developed than Argentina long time before joinig the EU.
But entering in the EU helped to improve infrastructure. It's not the only reason, but has also contributed.
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Old 05-14-2013, 05:59 AM
 
Location: Montreal
708 posts, read 765,165 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Tempranillo View Post
No it doesn't, Spain was more developed than Argentina long time before joinig the EU.
But why??? Was it because the US had sent economic aid to Spain much more than to Argentina in the 1950s, and Franco was more receptive to development than Peron and other Argentine dictators?
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Old 05-14-2013, 11:47 AM
 
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The development of Spain began in the 60's with the Stabilization Plan, made by a group of technocrats, Spain left autharchy, and embrace liberal-market. That decade has been the greatest years of prosperity Spain had ever known. The money from emigrants to other european nations and the explosion of tourism allow Spain to develop the industrial sector, at the end of the dictatorchip(1975) Spain was the 13th indultrial power of the world. I guess that was becouse Spain was the poorest nation of western, the moment spain open its gates a lot of foreing companies invest for its low wages, like india or brazil nowadays.
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Old 05-14-2013, 11:48 AM
 
Location: Europe
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Quote:
Originally Posted by yofie View Post
But why??? Was it because the US had sent economic aid to Spain much more than to Argentina in the 1950s, and Franco was more receptive to development than Peron and other Argentine dictators?
I think that Marshall plan was not very generous in Spain, but I don't know about other possible helps. But maybe it wasn't due to any help, just development.
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Old 05-14-2013, 12:46 PM
 
Location: Montreal
708 posts, read 765,165 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Tempranillo View Post
The development of Spain began in the 60's with the Stabilization Plan, made by a group of technocrats, Spain left autharchy, and embrace liberal-market. That decade has been the greatest years of prosperity Spain had ever known. The money from emigrants to other european nations and the explosion of tourism allow Spain to develop the industrial sector, at the end of the dictatorchip(1975) Spain was the 13th indultrial power of the world. I guess that was becouse Spain was the poorest nation of western, the moment spain open its gates a lot of foreing companies invest for its low wages, like india or brazil nowadays.
So in other words, the difference between Argentina and Spain in the postwar era was that Argentina was not able to pull itself out of its mess (due to Peronism and its after-effects) whereas Franco, with the help of many people in the Spanish government, was able to switch from autarky to free trade and thus initiate an economic miracle similar to post-Pinochet Chile?

And were political institutions in Spain just as corrupt as in Argentina before World War II?
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