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Old 08-26-2008, 01:58 AM
 
1 posts, read 1,577 times
Reputation: 10

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I have a question for realtors (or anybody) who may know the answer to this:

I bid on a home a few months ago. The listing price was $160,000. I bid $149,000. I was told that even though the house had been on the market for over a year, there suddenly was another offer. The selling agent stated that he would take both mine and the other bid to the homeowner. I was soon told that the owner was going to deal solely with the other offer, which I assumed must have been significantly higher than my offer of $149,000. I later read online that the house sold for a mere $145,000, which is $4,000 LOWER than my original bid. Is something like this even possible without my being allowed to re-bid?

Thanks,
Joe
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Old 08-26-2008, 07:05 AM
 
Location: Portland OR
2,659 posts, read 3,855,338 times
Reputation: 4876
yes, no one has to sell to a specific person.

The other party could have been a family member or friend, they could have had no contingencies or a better chance at getting a loan or some other reason. Perhaps there was some unethical behavior but it will be very hard to find out.
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Old 08-26-2008, 08:01 AM
 
Location: Chicago
2,467 posts, read 12,244,035 times
Reputation: 897
Could have also been all cash..... you really just never know what happened. And, again, as cc suggested, it could have been someone they knew. They also could have accepted a higher offer (such as 150K), but then after inspection had to negiotate the price down.... You just never know!
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