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Old 09-28-2012, 12:47 AM
 
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It would appear so if you analyze John 9:1

Quote:
"And as he was passing by, he saw a man blind from birth. And his disciples asked him, 'Rabbi, who has sinned, this man or his parents, that he should be born blind?" Jesus answered, 'Neither has this man sinned, nor his parents, but the works of God were to be made manifest in him.'"
Now if the man was born blind then he had no chance to commit sin that would have caused blindness to be visited upon him as a result of that sin. Makes sense. So why did the disciples suppose a baby blind from birth had an opportunity to commit sin unless they believed that sin had been committed in a prior life?
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Old 09-28-2012, 05:36 AM
 
Location: Prattville, Alabama
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Quote:
Originally Posted by thrillobyte View Post
It would appear so if you analyze John 9:1



Now if the man was born blind then he had no chance to commit sin that would have caused blindness to be visited upon him as a result of that sin. Makes sense. So why did the disciples suppose a baby blind from birth had an opportunity to commit sin unless they believed that sin had been committed in a prior life?
The belief in reincarnation was quite prevelant in the first century all the way up until Constantine put an end to it with the sword. There are a few passages that the council missed when editing the canon...John 9:1 is one of them.
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Old 09-28-2012, 07:54 AM
 
Location: Earth
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"And as he was passing by, he saw a man blind from birth. And his disciples asked him, 'Rabbi, who has sinned, this man or his parents, that he should be born blind?" Jesus answered, 'Neither has this man sinned, nor his parents, but the works of God were to be made manifest in him."

I don't understand what but the works of God were to be made manifest in him." means.
Could someone explain it.
I don't see a connection to that sentence and a past life.
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Old 09-28-2012, 08:44 AM
 
Location: arizona ... most of the time
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actually what you quoted was John 9:1-3
Quote:
Originally Posted by thrillobyte View Post
It would appear so if you analyze John 9:1
"And as he was passing by, he saw a man blind from birth. And his disciples asked him, 'Rabbi, who has sinned, this man or his parents, that he should be born blind?" Jesus answered, 'Neither has this man sinned, nor his parents, but the works of God were to be made manifest in him.'"
Now if the man was born blind then he had no chance to commit sin that would have caused blindness to be visited upon him as a result of that sin. Makes sense. So why did the disciples suppose a baby blind from birth had an opportunity to commit sin unless they believed that sin had been committed in a prior life?
Now if the man was born blind then he had no chance to commit sin that would have caused blindness to be visited upon him as a result of that sin. Makes sense.

[1] How does that makes sense? .... Jesus' answer does not support the conclusion.

So why did the disciples suppose a baby blind from birth had an opportunity to commit sin

[2] Why? Because they knew their OT
Psalm 51:5
Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me.

Psalm 58:3
Even from birth the wicked go astray; from the womb they are wayward and speak lies.
Jesus also said:
John 3:6
Flesh gives birth to flesh,

Sinful human parents conceive and give birth to sinful babies
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Old 09-28-2012, 08:48 AM
 
1,196 posts, read 753,387 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by thrillobyte View Post
It would appear so if you analyze John 9:1 Now if the man was born blind then he had no chance to commit sin that would have caused blindness to be visited upon him as a result of that sin. Makes sense. So why did the disciples suppose a baby blind from birth had an opportunity to commit sin unless they believed that sin had been committed in a prior life?
The question at John 9:2 And his disciples asked him, saying, Master, who did sin, this man, or his parents, that he was born blind?, Asked by Jesus Apostles did NOT show, that they THOUGHT, one can have a prior life. I’m not saying people back then, be-it Jews or NOT believe or didn’t believe. I’m just saying, that scripture didn’t show they did. All they did was ask a question. peace

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Old 09-28-2012, 08:56 AM
 
Location: arizona ... most of the time
11,825 posts, read 12,487,769 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Aeroman View Post
"And as he was passing by, he saw a man blind from birth. And his disciples asked him, 'Rabbi, who has sinned, this man or his parents, that he should be born blind?" Jesus answered, 'Neither has this man sinned, nor his parents, but the works of God were to be made manifest in him."

I don't understand what but the works of God were to be made manifest in him." means.
Could someone explain it.
I don't see a connection to that sentence and a past life.
There is no connection to that sentence and a past life.
"but the works of God were to be made manifest in him."
Another way of saying this (instead of the KJV verbage) would be.. "the work of God might be displayed in his life."

The work of God is done for several reasons, one of which is that God is to be honored.
Psalm 50:15
"call upon me in the day of trouble; I will deliver you, and you will honor me.â€

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Old 09-28-2012, 09:13 AM
 
419 posts, read 434,907 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ChristyGrl View Post
The belief in reincarnation was quite prevelant in the first century all the way up until Constantine put an end to it with the sword. There are a few passages that the council missed when editing the canon...John 9:1 is one of them.
source please?
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Old 09-28-2012, 09:15 AM
 
419 posts, read 434,907 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by thrillobyte View Post
It would appear so if you analyze John 9:1



Now if the man was born blind then he had no chance to commit sin that would have caused blindness to be visited upon him as a result of that sin. Makes sense. So why did the disciples suppose a baby blind from birth had an opportunity to commit sin unless they believed that sin had been committed in a prior life?
No. there is nothing in the Torah that would lead someone to believe in reincarnation. Of course, in Judea there was plenty of pagan influence, so it was possible that some would believe in it.

Having said that, the disciples of Jesus here were referencing a Jewish belief that children were punished for the misdeeds of their parents. This has nothing to do with a pagan belief of reincarnation and to make it as such would be reading meaning into it.
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Old 09-28-2012, 09:53 AM
 
Location: On a road heaven bound !
10,295 posts, read 9,693,980 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by twin.spin View Post
actually what you quoted was John 9:1-3


Now if the man was born blind then he had no chance to commit sin that would have caused blindness to be visited upon him as a result of that sin. Makes sense.

[1] How does that makes sense? .... Jesus' answer does not support the conclusion.

So why did the disciples suppose a baby blind from birth had an opportunity to commit sin

[2] Why? Because they knew their OT
Psalm 51:5
Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me.

Psalm 58:3
Even from birth the wicked go astray; from the womb they are wayward and speak lies.
Jesus also said:
John 3:6
Flesh gives birth to flesh,

Sinful human parents conceive and give birth to sinful babies
Amen....
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Old 09-28-2012, 09:54 AM
 
18,249 posts, read 16,907,876 times
Reputation: 7553
Quote:
Originally Posted by RuralMissionary View Post
No. there is nothing in the Torah that would lead someone to believe in reincarnation. Of course, in Judea there was plenty of pagan influence, so it was possible that some would believe in it.

Having said that, the disciples of Jesus here were referencing a Jewish belief that children were punished for the misdeeds of their parents. This has nothing to do with a pagan belief of reincarnation and to make it as such would be reading meaning into it.
Rural, you and twin.spin are honing in on Jesus' response which set them straight. I'm referring to their question. If they accepted the belief that children were punished for the sins of their parents, then their question would have been framed, "Rabbi, did this man's parents sin that he was born blind?"

To twin, your question frames a sinful state at birth as active, not passive which is the type of sin David is referring to in his statement. We don't sin at birth actively--we're born sinful which is passive. If we sinned actively at birth as you interpret the verse, then God in His infinite Judgement would have to condemn the baby to hell for eternity the same as an adult as just punishment for committing active, willful sin. The disciples' question was asked as active sin, "who did sin, this man..." so reference to the Psalm about being sinful at birth has no application to this situation.
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