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I copy/pasted the definition of the word 'slave' because I figured that had more authority than just 'my word' for something. However apparently some one thinks I should have given my own opinion on the subject so here goes...
There were cases where Hebrew/Isralite ppl needed help from a fellow countryman and so they 'served' this person for 6 years and could, if they wanted to, be set free in the 7th year. They were not allowed to keep a Isralite person as a bondman indefinitely, because they were to remember they were once bondmen in Egypt. Or in other words a Hebrew was to lend his services, to repay a debt, and not be considered/treated as a slave. [treated with dignity].
True slaves were 'gentiles' who were acquired/sold in the pagan world. These are the ones spoken of in Lev. 25:44-46.
Are you really saying the because they were gentiles it was OK for them to be bought and sold as slaves?
hmmm....i think what you're doing is the 'definition' of justifying slavery...
Im not and I honestly dont think they were slaves back then. I think the word slave was more than likely added on by man to use the bible to justify slavery. If anythng they were more servants than they were slave, because it seems they were treated better than slaves are. No slaves are allowed to go free after 7 years now.
Are you really saying the because they were gentiles it was OK for them to be bought and sold as slaves?
No, of course not. I'm saying the word 'slave' would have only been applied to the ppl bought and sold in the pagan world, and because of this Moses wrote laws concerning them.
If the bible is the word of god, how does a bible believer justify the idea of owning slaves and defining the appropriate punishment if your slave is a little bad, versus very bad.
Thinking-man, if you are really curious how people can take the OT seriously, you might want to post some questions in the Judaism forum. There are two Orthodox Jews who post there often and you might find their posts very interesting. I certainly have.
Thinking-man, if you are really curious how people can take the OT seriously, you might want to post some questions in the Judaism forum. There are two Orthodox Jews who post there often and you might find their posts very interesting. I certainly have.
FYI: IF you do, use either Torah or Tanakh and not even mention OT.
Your quote is from the Old Testament. The Old Testament laws and rules don't apply anymore.Those laws were for the Jewish nation of Israel. That nation ended in 586BC. New Testament is the primary book by which Christians live their lives and worship God.
1.THOU SHALT HAVE NO OTHER GODS BEFORE ME.
2.Remember.. the Sabbath Keep it holy! Since when doesn't that apply anymore?
3.THOU SHALT NOT TAKE THE NAME OF THE LORD, THY GOD, IN VAIN.
Thank you very much for showing me (us ) these laws were only for the Jews!
Slavery was the works of the flesh of men who claim people as possessions , and this in the bible was an old culture which is not acceptable to modern man , And this modern man has be slowly eroding into a post modern time as sin corrupts the best of ideas ,................ Like you see the investors of this post modern time would prefer the revive the slavery economic system and pay people nothing for their Works in the labor system and even governments lean toward taking the pay away for their economic gain If they could ................. See Just because people are lean toward the corrupt nature of the world , does not mean that The Living God through Lord Jesus supports to corrupt nature of economic slavery today or the past
John Newton was also a participant in the slave trade before and after his conversion.
Does that add ? or take away from the magnificent beauty & truth of his song?
Yeah John Newton was one of them: "sinners"!
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