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Go back and address the issue of how one form of Lord is ONLY used of God and NEVER of Christ.
Nert "LORD" in the KJV and many Bibles is YHWH/Jehovah not any form of Adonay in the text and never used of Christ.
I did, and you went on a translation run.
Isaiah 51:22 "Thus saith thy Lordthe LORD, and thy God that pleadeth the cause of his people, Behold, I have taken out of thine hand the cup of trembling, even the dregs of the cup of my fury; thou shalt no more drink it again" sound like Thomas, "my Lord and My God, (smile).
and the “Lord” here is H113 אָדוֹן אָדוֹן 'adown (aw-done') (or (shortened) adon {aw-done'}) n-m.
1. sovereign, i.e. controller (human or divine)
the same as in Ps 110:1. well?.
NOW, one more time is the LORD, all cap the REDEEMER, and is the "Lord" Jesus the REDEEMER Yes, or NO?, just answer YES or NO. no translation off the wall or nothing, Just answer YES, or NO. thanks in advance.
Location: In a little house on the prairie - literally
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Originally Posted by Pinealley
You can't tell me that people in the Bronze Age were more superstitious and less intelligent than those of the Iron Age/Kali Yuga. God is smarter than that
Heck, people in the 1800's were more superstitious then people are now.
Advancement of scientific knowledge fortunately has got rid of or reduced silly superstitions that existed for centuries and even millenia.
Many are just amazed that imaginary, invisible friends are still part of some people's belief system. That is slowly disappearing, but belief systems ingrained from childhood are hard to discard, especially if they are reinforced by a plethora of institutions and especially by the community one lives in.
After all, the Vikings were certain Thor and Freya existed and controlled much of their life. We know better now, but they didn't.
"When you understand why you dismiss all the other possible gods, you will understand why I dismiss yours." ...Stephen F Roberts
Who Identify the PERSON, Matthew 1:23 "Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us”. Matthew 1:21 "And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins”. he, he, he?, who is the he? that shall save his people?, listen, Isaiah 35:4 "Say to them that are of a fearful heart, Be strong, fear not: behold, your God will come with vengeance, even God with a recompence; he will come and save you”. he, he is GOD. now who is “WITH” us to save us?, JESUS, "he" is God in flesh. being interpreted is, God with us
The argument about the English not conforming to the "original language had no caps or lower case " is silly if not be considered an purposeful obfuscation to hinder the spread of the truth.
Also ... could you then explain why English should conform and other languages not?
Go back and read what I said. I did not say anything about not conforming to other languages as such is proper.
Hebrew and Greek were written in one case only. When we translate into English we are guided by the rules of grammar where they are clear and then by context and then by theology.
A perfect example.
Satan is called HO THEOS in Greek, and the rule is a definite noun (indicated by the "HO"/The) is to be capitalized. Yet it is generally not capitalized due to the desire to separate "The God" from Satan. Grammar is ignored in favor of context and theology.
Now a good example where theology is used to ignore grammar and context is EX 3:14. "I Am/ I AM" is totally a violation of the Hebrew grammar and context, but is used solely to support a theology. Is that a good idea?
Go back and read what I said. I did not say anything about not conforming to other languages as such is proper.
Hebrew and Greek were written in one case only. When we translate into English we are guided by the rules of grammar where they are clear and then by context and then by theology.
A perfect example.
Satan is called HO THEOS in Greek, and the rule is a definite noun (indicated by the "HO"/The) is to be capitalized. Yet it is generally not capitalized due to the desire to separate "The God" from Satan. Grammar is ignored in favor of context and theology.
Now a good example where theology is used to ignore grammar and context is EX 3:14. "I Am/ I AM" is totally a violation of the Hebrew grammar and context, but is used solely to support a theology. Is that a good idea?
Just one question CA, Who is the REDEEMER, and SAVIOUR?. well
No problem. All the spiritual systems I am referring to and using, all use ancient languages as their first language.
Hinduism: In the Bhagavad Gita for instance the Supreme Personality of Godhead (God-incarnate; layman's terms) is named Krsna or Krishna, similar to Jesus in Christianity. The "Holy Trinity" would be Brahma(who created the everything in existence) Shiva, who transforms or destroys (who some sects of Hindu say is the same as Krishna or used interchangeably) and Vishnu who maintains and preserves. It is said that chanting Krishna or Rama name, one can attain transcendence and peace.
Rasta/Ethiopian Orthodox church is purpoted to use the first language in existence (Ge'ez or Amharic, I forgot which one.) I do know both are Semitic languages though. I'm a little rushed on time so I can't expound like I want to. Also Cu****ic, Oromotic, and Semetic languages have all been found to have originated in "Sub-Sahara" Africa. If you need anywhere to start looking, start looking there. Peace.
Oh I see. well first off, no disrespect, there is no holy trinity in Christianity, as from what I'm taught. or any other . you got one, (Krsna or Krishna) who is the supreme personality, and another Brahma(who created the everything in existence). that two, and then, you have Shiva who transforms or destroys, and is interchangeable with Krishna, and fourth you have Vishnu who maintains and preserves, that's four, or 3 1/2 with the interchangeable Shiva. so all these spiritual systems, and person(s), leads to, and are the ONE true GOD then?. I hope not, but thanks for the enlightenment.
Location: In a little house on the prairie - literally
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Originally Posted by DennisW
How do you know for sure?
There is no evidence that indicates that any god of any kind of any religion is not man made.
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